"-es como mapita."

Just out of curiosity- if mapa is masculine, why would it not be mapito? Is the rule that you add ito to masculine nouns or that you insert "it" before the ending vowel?

Sorry, I do not know the answer to your question.

Googling tells me that mapita is correct, I'd just like to know why.

"Cada célula tiene unas marcas--es como mapita."

If "mapita" is a substance or a proper name, it is fine, but if it is a little map, you must say "un mapita".

"-es como mapita."

Just out of curiosity- if mapa is masculine, why would it not be mapito? Is the rule that you add ito to masculine nouns or that you insert "it" before the ending vowel?

Sorry, I do not know the answer to your question.

Googling tells me that mapita is correct, I'd just like to know why.

In this case, 'mapita' is the diminutive form, which usually takes 'ita', 'uelo', or 'illo(a)'. In this case, the language has designated the word 'mapa' to take the 'ita' form. If a masculine noun in its diminutive form takes 'ito', it's usually because it's an animate object, like an animal or person (or a person's name), which usually tends to show some form of admiration or endearment, such as 'perro - perrito', or 'Jose - Joselito'... or like I used to call my ex-boyfriend, Osito, the diminutive of 'oso'.

I hope that helps you.

"Cada célula tiene unas marcas--es como mapita."

If "mapita" is a substance or a proper name, it is fine, but if it is a little map, you must say "un mapita".

That is what I thought; thanks for confirming that. I guess my doubt is whether an object can be treated as a substance or essence noun in Spanish. As far as I know, it cannot in English, but I hear people say things like this in Spanish in regards to objects:

"Mario es tan fuerte, como león."
"Sus motivos eran puros, como nieve."
"Esta cancha es muy plana, como mesa."

If I were to say these things, I would naturally include an indefinite article; but this is typical of what I hear.

So my doubt is whether there is any acceptable use of an object as a substance noun, or if these people are speaking incorrectly. Could you confirm, please'

"-es como mapita."

Just out of curiosity- if mapa is masculine, why would it not be mapito? Is the rule that you add ito to masculine nouns or that you insert "it" before the ending vowel?

Sorry, I do not know the answer to your question.

Googling tells me that mapita is correct, I'd just like to know why.

I think that any diminutive form keeps the ending vowel of the corresponding regular form, without regard to gender, but I would like someone to verify this. I frequently hear native speakers say "las manitas" for "las manos." Someone even "corrected" me one time when I said "las manitos," so I'm not sure about this.

Could a knowledgeable native speaker please help us with this'

"Mario es tan fuerte, como león."

"Sus motivos eran puros, como nieve."

"Esta cancha es muy plana, como mesa."

Do people really say that'''? It sounds foreign to me... and shockingly ugly. In Spain we'd definitely say "un león", "la nieve" and "una mesa".

I frequently hear native speakers say "las manitas" for "las manos." Someone even "corrected" me one time when I said "las manitos," so I'm not sure about this.

Most definitely not! "Manita" is in the DRAE.

I frequently hear native speakers say "las manitas" for "las manos." Someone even "corrected" me one time when I said "las manitos," so I'm not sure about this.

Also Manitas de Plata: the professional name of a flamenco guitarist.

Most definitely not! "Manita" is in the DRAE.

I have looked there and have not been able to find it. I don't know how to search for diminutives in the DRAE. I do see it, now, in the dictionary on this site. Thanks.

Could you please, though, give some more explanation as to "why"? My guess is that it has something to do with the Latin, and with why "mano" is feminine in the first place. I'm also guessing that this is different than the reason why "moto" is feminine, as it is short for "motocicleta." (I believe I have heard "motocita" as a diminutive of this word, but I'm not sure if it is actually correct.)

If I heard the word "manita" and didn't know what it meant, I would go to the dictionary and look under "mana," just as, if I heard "otorrinolaringologito" and didn't know what it meant, I would look under "otorrinolaringólogo."

With "el problema," I have heard "un problemita" and "un problemilla." Why doesn't this word follow the same pattern, accepting the "masculine 'o'" when it is used in the diminutive? (Or does it')

This is definitely confusing. But I have found, that if I dig hard enough, I can usually find a logical answer for why things are the way they are in Spanish. And you, Lazarus, have helped me with a number of those. With very few things in Spanish have I had to settle for "That is just the way it is," as I have with hundreds of things in English.