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Subjunctive in Adverbial Clauses

Subjunctive in Adverbial Clauses

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Hi! I've recently started studying the uses of the subjunctive and have looked at many websites that talk about using the subjunctive in adverbial clauses. All of the websites are somewhat confusing so I was wondering if anyone here could explain it to me in clear, simple terms. Thanks!

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updated May 24, 2009
posted by Nick-Cortina

9 Answers

2
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I am aware of it, but I know what I'm saying: I've bought, read and studied many of these books... and the more I read, the more I am convinced that the "simpler" rule works. For example, I've got one here on my shelf called "El modo verbal en cláusulas condicionales, causales, consecutivas, concesivas, finales y adverbiales de lugar, tiempo y modo" (447 pages), or another one called "Del indicativo al subjuntivo" (339 pages), or "Indicativo y subjuntivo" (463 pages), or "El subjuntivo" (251 pages), or "El subjuntivo castellano" (205 pages), or "Gramática descriptica de la lengua española" (378 pages about the subjunctive) and a few more, all on the same subject. I learnt about this simplified theory by an experienced teacher in Columbia University with Ph.D. in Spanish Language and a Master's in Spanish as a Foreign Language: José Plácido Ruiz-Campillo.

updated Oct 23, 2009
posted by lazarus1907
2
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Forget about adverbial subordinates and other types of subordinates. There is only one rule for the use of the subjunctive: you use indicative when you want others to know what you think, suspect, believe, guess,... regardless of the rest of the sentence, and you use subjunctive when you don't.

In adverbial clauses, the rule is the same:

Temporal clauses: if it happened before, you declare it (indicative); if it hasn't, you can't declare it (subjunctive). Ej. Te invitaré cuando vengas. Me gusta cuando vienes a casa.

Final clauses: they express what can be ideally achieved in the future if something is done. This, of course, can never be declared, so it requires subjunctive.

"Reason" clauses: they state something that has happened, given as a reason for something. Since they are declarations, they require indicative.

Concessive: they concede a given argument. If what they concede is true (it has happened), it is declared, and you must use indicative. If it may happen, you cannot declare it, and you must use subjunctive.

And so on, and so forth...

updated Oct 23, 2009
posted by lazarus1907
1
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But what about if you say...

Siempre vamos a la fiesta antes de que (llegan/lleguen los abuelos.

Would you use the indic. because of "siempre" or the subjunctive?

And one final question: is the "de" always required with después de que and antes de que?

When you say "antes (de) que", you are not "declaring" what follows. Maybe your grandparents arrived later, maybe not; you don't say it. Your entire sentence happens without your grandparents being there; you never intended to describe their arrival. This construction always requires subjunctive.

The traditional construction was "antes que", from Latin "ante quam", but the adverb "antes" requires "de" before nouns, so the language slowly became more systematic by adding "de" to the construction "antes de que". Now, both alternatives are accepted as correct, but the one with "de" seems to be more popular.

updated Oct 23, 2009
posted by lazarus1907
1
vote

Okay so basically - with the example "Te invitaré cuando vengas" you use the subjunctive because its sort of like you never know if the person actually comes, so it's not a part of reality or fact. And for other examples like...

Iremos a la fiesta antes de que lleguen los abuelos.
Uses subj. because the grandparents arriving might never happen; isn't part of "reality."
But what about if you say...
Siempre vamos a la fiesta antes de que (llegan/lleguen los abuelos.
Would you use the indic. because of "siempre" or the subjunctive?
And one final question: is the "de" always required with después de que and antes de que?

Thank you!

updated Oct 23, 2009
posted by Nick-Cortina
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Okay! Thank you so much! grin

updated May 24, 2009
posted by Nick-Cortina
0
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But now... what if you say:

Iremos después de que lleguen.

Siempre vamos después de que (lleguen/llegan).

In the second example, do you use the indicative because it's a fact that we always go after they arrive?

Correct. In "Iremos después..." you need subjunctive, because they haven't arrived, but in "Siempre vamos después de..." you are declaring that they arrive, so you use indicative.

updated May 24, 2009
posted by lazarus1907
0
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So pretty much you always have to use the subjunctive with "antes (de) que" because it is an anticipated event, and you're not "declaring" something as factual or part of reality?

But now... what if you say:

Iremos después de que lleguen.

Siempre vamos después de que (lleguen/llegan).

In the second example, do you use the indicative because it's a fact that we always go after they arrive?

Sorry about all the questions. And thank you for all your clear examples and explanations - you're truly a wonderful help!

updated May 24, 2009
posted by Nick-Cortina
0
votes

Forget about adverbial subordinates and other types of subordinates. There is only one rule for the use of the subjunctive: you use indicative when you want others to know what you think, suspect, believe, guess,... regardless of the rest of the sentence, and you use subjunctive when you don't.

You don't get Christmas cards from many authors of Spanish grammar, do you? That seems to dismiss a lot of people's work.

updated May 24, 2009
posted by 0074b507
0
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HI NIck, I have called our grammar specialist to this thread.

Welome to the forum. smile

updated May 24, 2009
posted by 00494d19