Indirect objects

Question

When using a prepositional phrase to clarify the indirect object is it alway necessary to have the indirect object pronoun as well?
For example: Can I say, "Dió la manzana a mí." or do I need to say "Me dió la manzana a mí" I know that the "a mí" is optional.

Answer 1

Yes, it is necessary.

Answer 2

Man that was fast! Thanks so much.

Answer 3

Redimida said:

Man that was fast! Thanks so much.

I have also left a note on your page

Answer 4

Any object with "a" and a personal pronoun (see the list below) requires the duplication of the corresponding pronoun (me, te,...).

a mí
a ti
a él
a ella
a usted
a nosotros
a vosotros
a vosotras
a ustedes
a ellos
a ellas

Answer 5

What is the verb form for "dió"?
I was not able to find the definition in the dictionary on this forum.

When I typed "dió" in the dictionary search box, it gave me "dio" ser "dar".

I was wondering if that was a glitch.

Thank you,

Marco

Answer 6

Marco T said:

What is the verb form for "dió"'I was not able to find the definition in the dictionary on this forum.When I typed "dió" in the dictionary search box, it gave me "dio" ser "dar".I was wondering if that was a glitch.Thank you,Marco

It is the preterit of dar. A past tense, "gave"

Answer 7

Marco T said:

What is the verb form for "dió"? I was not able to find the definition in the dictionary on this forum.

When I typed "dió" in the dictionary search box, it gave me "dio" ser "dar".

What I get is "dio" ver "dar", which is, I think, a change. It used no to give anything for conjugated verb forms, now it's telling you to look at "dar".
3rd person sing. preterite of "¨dar".

Answer 8

Yes, no tilde, Marco, well observed!

Answer 9

Heidita said:

Yes, no tilde, Marco, well observed!

Many years ago I learned that the tilde was the wavy line over the "n". Now I see that a tilde can also be an accent'

Answer 10

In Spanish, tilde can be either the accent mark (over vowels) or the wavy line (over n). In English, Heidita should have said "accent," because tilde is only this: ~

Kathleen said:

Heidita said:

Yes, no tilde, Marco, well observed!

Many years ago I learned that the tilde was the wavy line over the "n". Now I see that a tilde can also be an accent?

>

Answer 11

samdie said:

Marco T said:

What is the verb form for "dió"? I was not able to find the definition in the dictionary on this forum. When I typed "dió" in the dictionary search box, it gave me "dio" ser "dar".

What I get is "dio" ver "dar", which is, I think, a change. It used no to give anything for conjugated verb forms, now it's telling you to look at "dar".

3rd person sing. preterite of "¨dar".

Yes, samdie. I know that the dictionary used no give us the definition if you typed conjugated verbs in the search box. However it was updated couple months ago.
The reason why I was asking this question was because the third person single preterite tense does not have tildo on "o" so that made me not sure if "dar" was the right word to look at.

I think the tildo needs to be added on this tense in the dictionary, otherwise confusion would be created to other people.

Thank you,

Marco

Answer 12

Marco said:

:

I think the tildo needs to be added on this tense in the dictionary, otherwise confusion would be created to other people.

I'm not sure what you mean, Marco. There is no accent. The correct spelling is dio.

Answer 13

Marco, there is no accent mark on dio, the preterit of dar. The I and O form a diphthong, so the word is only one syllable (think of it as "dyo"), and no accent is needed.

Answer 14

Thanks, Natasha and James for the clarification
Seems like the poster recalled the wrong word as "dió" in the sentence that she was asking.

Marco