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reflexive verb clarification

reflexive verb clarification

1
vote

Hola!

antojarse = "to want [something]" or "to feel like having or doing [something]"

Se me antoja ir al cine = I feel like going to the movies

what is the function of 'se' in the sentence? as far as I know, se is the reflexive pronoun for 3rd person sing and plural, and in this sentence 'me' should be the reflexive pronoun.

I think that 'me' is the indirect object pronoun, which means 'going to the movie is wanted TO ME" and 'se' is the reflexive pronoun; it should be 'me' but there's already one 'me'.. so it became se. am I correct?

please clarify, Alon

2499 views
updated Apr 21, 2013
posted by alonaxis
just to clarify 'antojarse' is a pronominal verb rather than reflexive :) - Kiwi-Girl, Apr 20, 2013
check this previous thread out - http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/3245/antojarse - Kiwi-Girl, Apr 20, 2013

11 Answers

3
votes

another question please,

tienes que amarme como se adoran los amantes en la madruga.

The n in "adoran" was forgotten.

The se indicates "each other."

You have to love me as lovers adore each other in the early morning .

updated Apr 20, 2013
posted by 005faa61
(I think It would have been better to ask this new question in a new thread) - 005faa61, Apr 20, 2013
Spot on ya have my vote., - albert-fabrik-, Apr 20, 2013
2
votes

As far as I've identified, verbs and their usage are the most difficult aspect for non-native Spanish learners, so I won't even try to make you more confused, please follow this link

updated Apr 19, 2013
posted by diagonx
Great link!, so se represents the subject of the sentence - "ir al cine" and me is the indirect object pronoun. the literal meaning of the sentence is: going to the cinema feels good to me. am I correct? - alonaxis, Apr 19, 2013
Yes, the speaker is the object of the action of a, well, non-existing subject, beyond the grammatical context, that is. - diagonx, Apr 19, 2013
2
votes

Se me antoja ir al cine = I feel like going to the movies

Hmmm, I´m not 100% sure on this one, but will take a crack at it until a better source comes along (hopefully soon). I may be proven to be an idiot, but if I learn something while sticking my neck out to analyze, then I´ll be a happy idiot at least.

If it was reflexive, it would have to involve ´me antojo´ (first person), not antoja

This would appear (to me, which may be wrong) to be a passive construction, as is used for accidental or unplanned or unexpected events or occurrences

Se me olvidó mi relój -- I forgot my watch.

Se me antoja ir al cine.

It would seem to be like something else made you want to go, or it just kind of occurred to you, without any real plan, and you´re just along for the ride.

But, I usually think of antojarse as being fairly strong, so this rather passive way of saying it seems odd to me. Maybe I have it all wrong.

We need a Cogumela (great at nuanced stuff) or one of those other advanced folks now. I´d like to understand it better myself.

updated Apr 19, 2013
posted by rogspax
I agree with you, as antoja is in the 3rd poerson it's behaving like olvidarse. - annierats, Apr 19, 2013
1
vote

Me antojo ir al cine.

I fancy going to the cinema.

Se Me antoja ir al cine. ???????????

updated Apr 19, 2013
edited by ian-hill
posted by ian-hill
1
vote

Antogarse is not a reflexive verb but pronominal. The "se me" is perfectly correct although I cannot explain it grammatically.

Se me antoja una cervecita - I could go for a nice beer

updated Apr 19, 2013
edited by Eddy
posted by Eddy
1
vote

found a great explanation here:

http://spanish.about.com/od/pronouns/a/moreaboutse.htm

enjoy guys!

updated Apr 19, 2013
edited by ian-hill
posted by alonaxis
Thanks, I find those very useful - diagonx, Apr 19, 2013
0
votes

"Antojarse" is only conjugated for 3rd person.

The personal pronoun (me, te, les, etc) represents the person affected by the action "antojarse" a pronominal verb. Se me antoja un café / A mí se me antoja un café.

There is no agent causing the action of "antojarse" so the "se" must be used. In effect, it causes its own action.

updated Apr 21, 2013
posted by 005faa61
That, I understand, good explanation. - Eddy, Apr 21, 2013
0
votes

"tienes que amarme como se adora los amantes en la madruga "

Not sure alonaxis, but seems to me to mean something like:

"You must ( have to ) love me as lovers are worshipped ( adored ) in the early morning." I presume that the " se " makes it mean that they are adored and not themselves adoring. But as I say I'm not at all sure. Doesn't make a lot of sense and hopefully someone more advanced can contribute. Saludos

updated Apr 19, 2013
edited by britisk
posted by britisk
Or could it mean: " you must love me as the early morning adores lovers " ???? - britisk, Apr 19, 2013
0
votes

another question please,

tienes que amarme como se adora los amantes en la madruga.

what this sentence means, and what is the function of se here?

Thanks.

updated Apr 19, 2013
posted by alonaxis
0
votes

I know that when you have the me, te, se etc in front of a verb creates an act one does do him or herself. Without it, the word could take a on a different meaning. Without the me, te le, it becomes an act of you doing something to someone or something. It's a little different than English.

For example:

Me baño todos los días. --- Me (myself) baño (I bathe) every day.

VS.

Yo baño el perro todos los días. --- I bathe the dog everyday.

But with the "se me"... I'm not sure. The se is used in passive language so maybe it is more like saying I kind of want to do this vs a more affirmative statement. Not sure if that helps at all or makes sense!

updated Apr 19, 2013
posted by ashwad0024
0
votes

you change that se to me te or se. In this case you do change it to me.

*me antoja ir al cine"

updated Apr 19, 2013
posted by jessicamccall117