Proper usage question

Question

Set aside the political aspect of this because it's not germane to my question. In other words, I am not taking a position on the validity of the statement, only its grammatical communication.

Someone said:

Arizona wants nothing more than the enforcement of existing federal immigration law.

One person wrote it this way:

Arizona no ha pedido nada más allá de que el gobierno federal haga cumplir las leyes federales de inmigración.

Another wrote it this way:

Arizona ha pedido nada más que para el gobierno federal para hacer cumplir leyes federales de inmigración.

Are they both correct? Is either correct?

The former is in the subjunctive, the latter is in the indicative. I see that. What about "nada más allá de que" vs. "nada más que para"?

Somebody help me understand, please.

Answer 1

For the first, I would say: Arizona no ha pedido nada más allá de que el gobierno federal cumpla con las leyes federales de inmigración.

For the second, I would say: Arizona ha pedido nada más que el gobierno federal cumpla con las leyes federales de inmigración.

If you want to use "haga," you have to say "se haga" because it´s the same government enforcing its own laws. Also "con" should follow "cumplir" in this case. And "cumplir" should be in subjunctive used this way.

Answer 2

How closely do you want to look at them?

Arizona wants nothing more than the enforcement of existing federal immigration law.

Your English sentence uses present tense while the translations both use past tense unnecessarily. It doesn't change the meaning much, but it is a difference.

Arizone no quiere nada más que la applicación...[your English sentence says nothing about the federal government doing anything, both translations added it]

Both are paraphrasings of the English sentence. [I like the 2nd one best], but neither says exactly what the English sentence does.

I would say that both are interpretations of the English sentence, but neither is a translation of the English sentence.