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me doy

me doy

0
votes

i give up and i gave up in spanish:

me doy y me di '?

any other way to say it'

34149 views
updated Apr 9, 2012
posted by PUNISHER
This thread has been getting answers since '09 and seems to continue on as the song that never ends... funniest part, the person who posted didn't even get a vote yet. =] - DJ_Huero, Apr 9, 2012

98 Answers

0
votes

Eddy said:

Robert Austin said:

Eddy, I believe that you are from Britain (possibly an ex-pat living in Spain) and if I am wrong then I apologise. I too am from Britain but cannot share your view about real English. I think that words like "bastardize" are inflammatory, possibly not intentionally but inflamatory all the same and refering to my previous point we can't expect an organic being like language to stay the same in different parts of the world over centuries. The only languages that don't change are dead languages and as English and Spanish are obviously not dead languages they cannot be expected to remain frozen with regards to usage and vocabulary.

One more thing, and please think about this carefully. What would you consider as a description of real English anyway?

First the word bastardize is not inflamatory. I use it in the sense of "to corrupt - The Concise Oxford Dictionary New Edition". Secondly I have no idea what real English means. For the explanation of that term you will have to ask James as he brought it up first. I was merely copying the term as he obviously understood it. Thirdly, you are right and wrong. I am from Britain but I am still living in Britain and there is no need to apologise. Finally being from Britain and agreeing with James, doesn't make you correct. MZ is from America and agrees with me that "I give" on its own does not make any sense.

I'm not from America, but from Britain. Just thought I'd clarify that....

updated Feb 17, 2009
posted by Mz-Badger
0
votes

i agree with you, i have to learn the correct way at first, but in the other hand, being among a group of people who are having an informal conversation, using (too much perfect sentences might make your words lose its flavour). it is good to learn slangs, abrevs,....ect from all parts of the world, that will make the comunication more interesting. YES learn the correct language then think of using it in informal ways.
but when i asked about (me doy) is just because i have heard it in T.V and i was wondering if it is the correct way to say it OR if it could be understood in some parts atleast. (because the program where i heard (me doy) in, is a comedy program, where for sure when they use funny expressions mainly it is very informal).
i am not with or against any of the opinions in this thread, as my first language is not english or spanish.
i like to be able to speak the correct language as well as knowing how people use that language in their own way.

Sally said:

Just because something is said in certain regions doesn't make it grammatically correct.Back to Punisher's original question, say "me doy" for "I give up" in certain regions and you will be understood. In other places you might not.My question is why not learn the correct way to say it?

>

updated Feb 17, 2009
posted by PUNISHER
0
votes

Wow! I've never seen so many panties in a wad! It took me forever to read through all the responses! I guess defending your language is like talking about politics or religion. I confess... I have used 'I give' when my older brother was kneeling on me with his knee in the middle of my back and my arm almost out of its socket and I just didn't have enough breath to get the 'up' out. I will still learn proper Spanish but it might be to my advantage if can understand the slang and regionalisms, too.

updated Feb 17, 2009
posted by Stephinx
0
votes

Well! I learn something new every day.

James Santiago said:

*

"...the kid on the bottom in samdie's scenario would have said 'UNCLE!' (Talk about slang which is illogical . . .)" Thanks to the wonders of etymology, it is perfectly logical. Uncle comes from the Irish word anacol, meaning mercy.

>

updated Feb 17, 2009
posted by MJ
0
votes

Sorry, but I have to disagree with James about the English. I can't recall ever hearing just "I give" for "I give up" or "I give in."

Search for "I give" at the following.

<http://askville.amazon.com/deal-Samsung-LN46A850-46-Inch-1080p-120Hz-LCD-HDTV/AnswerViewer.do'requestId=32066995>
ok...i give...tell me why i want THIS one?

[url=http://www.boerevryheid.co.za/forums/showthread.php't=16409&page=4]http://www.boerevryheid.co.za/forums/showthread.php't=16409&page=4[/url]
I give[,] tell me about it!

[url=http://books.google.com/books'id=j6PX-iBqWpgC&pg=PA163&lpg=PA163&dq=%22i+give+tell+me%22&source=web&ots=75YF53YRjA&sig=2MBy0OgiNHjJFgVgMAiBIMUDf0c&hl=en&ei=mgebSayRO4KOsQO1sYR4&sa=X&oi=book_result&resnum=8&ct=result]http://books.google.com/books'id=j6PX-iBqWpgC&pg=PA163&lpg=PA163&dq=%22i+give+tell+me%22&source=web&ots=75YF53YRjA&sig=2MBy0OgiNHjJFgVgMAiBIMUDf0c&hl=en&ei=mgebSayRO4KOsQO1sYR4&sa=X&oi=book_result&resnum=8&ct=result[/url]
"Okay, I give, tell me." p. 163

http://forums.ebay.com/db2/topic/Childrens-Clothing-Boutique/Ok-I-Give/520090831&amp;
Ok I give, I missed the board so I guess I have to get used to it

And on and on...

updated Feb 17, 2009
posted by 00bacfba
0
votes

the kid on the bottom in samdie's scenario would have said "UNCLE!" (Talk about slang which is illogical . . .)

Thanks to the wonders of etymology, it is perfectly logical. Uncle comes from the Irish word anacol, meaning mercy.

updated Feb 17, 2009
posted by 00bacfba
0
votes

Is "la man allí" Spanish''

To be precise, it is Spanish with a foreign loan word, one which has yet to meet wide acceptance. If I say "Building computers is the company's raison d'être," no one would argue that that is not English, because those words are all in standard English dictionaries and are widely understood by English speakers, despite the last two coming directly from French. If I said "He had pommes frites with his hamburger," some would say that isn't English, because those words are not in the dictionary, although many English speakers would understand them (as would German speakers). But incorporating foreign words in your native language is a practice with a history as long as language itself, or at least as long as there has been intercourse between groups that speak different languages.

It therefore seems judgmental to claim that people in Quito who use "man" for "hombre" are somehow uneducated, when that may not be the case at all. I would assume (without any knowledge) that they are using it to sound chic. Oops, I used a French word!

updated Feb 17, 2009
posted by 00bacfba
0
votes

MJ took the word out of my mouth . . . I was going to say that in the old days, anyway, the kid on the bottom in samdie's scenario would have said "UNCLE!" (Talk about slang which is illogical . . .)

James said:

I have heard "Me doy" used often as an abbreviated form. In fact, this is exactly the same in English, where we say "I give" as a short form for "I give up" or "I give in."

Sorry, but I have to disagree with James about the English. I can't recall ever hearing just "I give" for "I give up" or "I give in." Teens may sometimes say "Give!!!" but it means something more like "OK, go ahead, tell me the news, stop keeping the secret."

In any case, me doy sounds more like a shortened version of the Spanish to me than an Anglicization.

Great discussion guys, I enjoy reading these.

updated Feb 17, 2009
posted by Natasha
0
votes

I am sorry but I have to disagree. There are plenty of idioms in English which don't make sense but are perfectly acceptable in English. These idioms do not have to conform to any specific rules of grammar but are understood amongst those who speak them. If Mexicans understand "Me doy" and Ecuadorians understand "La man" then they become acceptable in Mexican and Ecuadorian Spanish respectively. No one has any right to tell me how I should speak my English as a native speaker or how Mexicans or Ecuadorians should speak their Spanish.

Heidita said:

Gus said:

There is no need to be rude in a discussion among educated people or people that are trying to learn. I can see being rude in a traffic dispute or a radio host beig rude because it atracts customers-listners-.It is so ever easy to be rude it is harder to maintain decorum.

Heidita said:

There are are roughly five Americans for every British, so if one wanted to be narrow-minded, one might say that speakers of British English, being in the minority, are the ones out of line when there is a difference in usagePopulation:109.955.400 Mexico46.157.822 SpainWell, we do not get so much difference in population here but we do get half the amount...so Mexicans are right '? Spaniards are definitely the minority here. And I do not want to mention the fly example Lazarus likes using, jeej, sorry, too rude.

I have no clue whatsoever ,gus, why you would consider my comment rude. I am simply stating a fact. The first to talk about statistics was James, I am simply following suit.I don't know if you refer to the example Lazarus once gave (which was deleted I think) but it is a simply fact that however many people use this "me doy" ---|-it is still incorrect. Like the "la man allí", which is abhorrent.The fact that many people use it does not make in any better.We have our own crosses to carry with the leísmo for example. However many people use it, it is not correct grammar.The leísmo is at least understood though by all Spanish speakers, not so "me doy" or "la man allí"

>

updated Feb 17, 2009
posted by Robert-Austin
0
votes

Gus said:

Besides it is not a question of being right or wrong it is a question of explaining how people use a tool. In this case the way Mexicans use the Spanish language.y.

This is precisely the question at hand: is this Spanish?
We are not talking about slang expressions here.
Is "la man allí" Spanish''

updated Feb 17, 2009
posted by 00494d19
0
votes

Gus said:

There is no need to be rude in a discussion among educated people or people that are trying to learn. I can see being rude in a traffic dispute or a radio host beig rude because it atracts customers-listners-.It is so ever easy to be rude it is harder to maintain decorum.

Heidita said:

There are are roughly five Americans for every British, so if one wanted to be narrow-minded, one might say that speakers of British English, being in the minority, are the ones out of line when there is a difference in usagePopulation:109.955.400 Mexico46.157.822 SpainWell, we do not get so much difference in population here but we do get half the amount...so Mexicans are right '? Spaniards are definitely the minority here. And I do not want to mention the fly example Lazarus likes using, jeej, sorry, too rude.

I have no clue whatsoever ,gus, why you would consider my comment rude. I am simply stating a fact. The first to talk about statistics was James, I am simply following suit.

I don't know if you refer to the example Lazarus once gave (which was deleted I think) but it is a simply fact that however many people use this "me doy" ---|-it is still incorrect. Like the "la man allí", which is abhorrent.
The fact that many people use it does not make in any better.
We have our own crosses to carry with the leísmo for example. However many people use it, it is not correct grammar.
The leísmo is at least understood though by all Spanish speakers, not so "me doy" or "la man allí"

updated Feb 17, 2009
posted by 00494d19
0
votes

UNCLE!

Language is a living thing.

But I love knowing the histories of words. And I am one of those perfectionists when it comes to wanting to know grammar, spelling, punctuation, etc., in both English and Spanish. Why?

At least partly because these rules build frameworks within which I can take poetic license. I am free within these limits--and free to jump out of them, too...but like a bungee they keep pulling me me back.

Language is a living thing. And I am one who chooses to mix their personal pronouns in English. Awhile back I looked at all the options and made this choice for myself. But am I sorry I know all the ways to keep number and gender consistent? Not one bit.

But that's me. I'm probably a bit obsessive compulsive.

James Santiago said:

[Someone said]: Your opinion doesn't really count here, because you don't live where it is used. ... I love this forum, but there is far too much protectionism of language here, in my opinion. ...Smacks of jingoism to me. Or sour grapes.*

updated Feb 17, 2009
posted by MJ
0
votes

Robert Austin said:

Eddy, I believe that you are from Britain (possibly an ex-pat living in Spain) and if I am wrong then I apologise. I too am from Britain but cannot share your view about real English. I think that words like "bastardize" are inflammatory, possibly not intentionally but inflamatory all the same and refering to my previous point we can't expect an organic being like language to stay the same in different parts of the world over centuries. The only languages that don't change are dead languages and as English and Spanish are obviously not dead languages they cannot be expected to remain frozen with regards to usage and vocabulary.

One more thing, and please think about this carefully. What would you consider as a description of real English anyway?

First the word bastardize is not inflamatory. I use it in the sense of "to corrupt - The Concise Oxford Dictionary New Edition". Secondly I have no idea what real English means. For the explanation of that term you will have to ask James as he brought it up first. I was merely copying the term as he obviously understood it. Thirdly, you are right and wrong. I am from Britain but I am still living in Britain and there is no need to apologise. Finally being from Britain and agreeing with James, doesn't make you correct. MZ is from America and agrees with me that "I give" on its own does not make any sense.

updated Feb 17, 2009
posted by Eddy
0
votes

That doesn't mean that it will be suitable for all situations.

There you have it in your statement above. I get off by saying "I give" makes no sense in real English whatsoever. I suppose as in countless other instances, you and I will just have to agree to disagree yet again.

updated Feb 17, 2009
posted by Eddy
0
votes

just because someone bastardizes a word or a saying, no matter where they are from, doesn't make it real English.

YES, IT DOES.

That doesn't mean that it will be suitable for all situations, but then slang rarely is. If something, anything, is used by a large portion of native speakers, then that thing, no matter how abhorrent you may find it, is real English. British people say things that we Americans often find laughably ridiculous, but I would stand by your side to defend such usage as being "real English" if it is used by real native speakers.

And where do you get off saying that shortening a phrase is a bastardization? We English speakers, along with the speakers of every language ever to exist, shorten things all the time. Is "I'm gonna" a bastardization? What about if I answer "Dunno," dropping off that subject pronoun? Would you claim that the hearer would ask "Who doesn't know'"? Of course not! Nor does "I give" engender any confusion whatsoever when used in the proper context.

updated Feb 17, 2009
posted by 00bacfba