me doy
i give up and i gave up in spanish:
me doy y me di '?
any other way to say it'
98 Answers
Eddy, I believe that you are from Britain (possibly an ex-pat living in Spain) and if I am wrong then I apologise. I too am from Britain but cannot share your view about real English. I think that words like "bastardize" are inflammatory, possibly not intentionally but inflamatory all the same and refering to my previous point we can't expect an organic being like language to stay the same in different parts of the world over centuries.
The only languages that don't change are dead languages and as English and Spanish are obviously not dead languages they cannot be expected to remain frozen with regards to usage and vocabulary.
One more thing, and please think about this carefully. What would you consider as a description of real English anyway'
James Santiago said:
I was querying James statement that said "I give" in English is an abbreviaition of "I give up" or "I give in" and in my opinion, it isn't.
Your opinion doesn't really count here, because you don't live where it is used. Your stance is akin to my saying that "I fancy that" is not real English, just because the word fancy can't be used as a verb where I live. Despite what you or anyone else says, I know for a certain fact that "I give" is used, as slang, by a great many native speakers of English to mean "I give up," and that, my friend, makes it real English.
I love this forum, but there is far too much protectionism of language here, in my opinion. Too many people telling other people that what they and their compatriots say is wrong. Smacks of jingoism to me. Or sour grapes.
It's nice to know that I am still considered as your friend, however, just because someone bastardizes a word or a saying, no matter where they are from, doesn't make it real English.
I was querying James statement that said "I give" in English is an abbreviaition of "I give up" or "I give in" and in my opinion, it isn't.
Your opinion doesn't really count here, because you don't live where it is used. Your stance is akin to my saying that "I fancy that" is not real English, just because the word fancy can't be used as a verb where I live. Despite what you or anyone else says, I know for a certain fact that "I give" is used, as slang, by a great many native speakers of English to mean "I give up," and that, my friend, makes it real English.
I love this forum, but there is far too much protectionism of language here, in my opinion. Too many people telling other people that what they and their compatriots say is wrong. Smacks of jingoism to me. Or sour grapes.
Gus said:
yea, but were are speaking in Spanish. Is an Spanish frase used in Mexico and to 20 million people or more makes sense. Spiritus vini vitis does not make sense to most of us ´cause it is in Latin but it does make sense.
Mz Badger said:
I give''? Yep, my answer would mirror Eddys I'm afraid, -you give what? why? Makes no sense to me in english.
I know we were talking about Spanish but I was querying James statement that said "I give" in English is an abbreviaition of "I give up" or "I give in" and in my opinion, it isn't.
Just because something is said in certain regions doesn't make it grammatically correct.
Back to Punisher's original question, say "me doy" for "I give up" in certain regions and you will be understood. In other places you might not.
My question is why not learn the correct way to say it'
I don't really understand why people get so animated when talking about the way in which a language is spoken in different parts of the world. The fact is that if Spanish people had wanted to maintain something akin to a "pure" language which would never have been corrupted by illiteracy in Latin America they should never have invaded said region. This also goes for English. You just can't invade or populate or whatever word one would use for what happened in the United Sates several centuries ago and expect the language to be exactly the same now.
With regards to "la man", Quiteños don't represent a "handful" of people and why would Lazarus expect any form of Spanish anywhere in the world to be immune from the "borrowing" of English words. In English we don't have a word for "entrepreneur" but happily use it without feeling that it corrupts the language. Spanish from Latin America is, in my opinion, significantly different to Spanish from Spain. Here the "vosotros" conjugation is not used and the "S" and "C" are not pronounced in the same way. In the Andean region there has also been words from indigineous languages such as quechua incorporated into the Spanish language and again I feel it enriches the language and doesn't diminsh it.
And one last thing Lazarus, forgive me but in one of your previous posts you mentioned something along the lines of "Spanish could eventually become so fractured that it would cease to be one language". I hope I have understood what you were trying to say correctly. I would however point out that this is what happened to Latin when it changed into French, Spanish, Portuguese, Italian, Romanian and the other smaller Romance languages. Where exactly do you stand on the corruption of Latin into Spanish? Or do you not see it that way?
te>lazarus1907 said:
Robert Austin said:
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Thus constructions such as "¿Conoces a la man que está allí? are perfectly acceptable.
Acceptable... among people who couldn't go to school, you mean. I am seguro that this manera of speaking is also derecho for you in English too, right? Apparently, we only just need a handful of illiterate people to justify anything as acceptable.
>
The question was reffering to an Spanish expression, not an English one.
Mz Badger said:
I give''? Yep, my answer would mirror Eddys I'm afraid, -you give what? why? Makes no sense to me in english.
>
Besides it is not a question of being right or wrong it is a question of explaining how people use a tool. In this casethe way Mexicans use the Spanish language.
Gus said:
There is no need to be rude in a discussion among educated people or people that are trying to learn. I can see being rude in a traffic dispute or a radio host beig rude because it atracts customers-listners-.It is so ever easy to be rude it is harder to maintain decorum.
Heidita said:
There are are roughly five Americans for every British, so if one wanted to be narrow-minded, one might say that speakers of British English, being in the minority, are the ones out of line when there is a difference in usagePopulation:109.955.400 Mexico46.157.822 SpainWell, we do not get so much difference in population here but we do get half the amount...so Mexicans are right '? Spaniards are definitely the minority here. And I do not want to mention the fly example Lazarus likes using, jeej, sorry, too rude.
>
There is no need to be rude in a discussion among educated people or people that are trying to learn. I can see being rude in a traffic dispute or a radio host beig rude because it atracts customers-listners-.It is so ever easy to be rude it is harder to maintain decorum.
Heidita said:
There are are roughly five Americans for every British, so if one wanted to be narrow-minded, one might say that speakers of British English, being in the minority, are the ones out of line when there is a difference in usagePopulation:109.955.400 Mexico46.157.822 SpainWell, we do not get so much difference in population here but we do get half the amount...so Mexicans are right '? Spaniards are definitely the minority here. And I do not want to mention the fly example Lazarus likes using, jeej, sorry, too rude.
>
Yes it is exactly what it means, me doy por vencido. Aamericans, saay )sometimes= UNCLE!! when they give up to other people in other countries it does not make a bit of sense.
Robert Austin said:
I'm not sure if Lazarus is correct about "me doy" being a kind of direct translation from the English "I give up". I can't think of a way it would be possible to use words from one language with structures from another and think that if it exists it is probably a shortening of "me doy por vencido". But who knows'I just thought I would add something to the discussion about the Spanish "borrowing" of words from English. I currently live in Quito in Ecuador and Quiteños routinely use "man" in place of "hombre" and incredibly "mujer". Thus constructions such as "¿Conoces a la man que está allí? are perfectly acceptable.
>
yea, but were are speaking in Spanish. Is an Spanish frase used in Mexico and to 20 million people or more makes sense. Spiritus vini vitis does not make sense to most of us ´cause it is in Latin but it does make sense.
Mz Badger said:
I give''? Yep, my answer would mirror Eddys I'm afraid, -you give what? why? Makes no sense to me in english.
>
lazarus1907 said:
Let me tell you what "Me doy" alone means:
Casi me doy = Casi me doy (un golpe / porrazo /...)
Pues sí, ni se me había ocurrido.
Let me tell you what "Me doy" alone means:
Casi me doy = Casi me doy (un golpe / porrazo /...)
Robert Austin said:
Thus constructions such as "¿Conoces a la man que está allí? are perfectly acceptable.
Acceptable... among people who couldn't go to school, you mean. I am seguro that this manera of speaking is also derecho for you in English too, right? Apparently, we only just need a handful of illiterate people to justify anything as acceptable.
James said
That is a shockingly provincial thing to say. There are are roughly five Americans for every British, so if one wanted to be narrow-minded, one might say that speakers of British English, being in the minority, are the ones out of line when there is a difference in usage. I would never say something like that, because it ignores the rich variety of language, but some might say it.
I really fail to see how I am being provincial by pointing out blatantly bad English, whichever side of the pond you live. "I give" is an incomplete sentence.
