Why an Indirect Object Pronoun
4
votes
La piedra le pegó.
Why is an Indirect Object Pronoun used here rather than the Direct Object Pronoun "Lo."
The stone hit him. Is it because the stone, being inanimate, can't really do the hitting?
1214 views
updated Aug 10, 2013
posted by Chat77
Good question. These confuse me to no end. Looks like you just returned after some time away. Welcome back! - Findy, Aug 9, 2013
3 Answers
2
votes
Looks like leismo to me. It is actually being used as a direct object pronoun. Many prople use le and les for DOP when the DO is a person.
updated Aug 9, 2013
posted by gringojrf
2
votes
This was addressed before for the verb pegar. If I've done this correctly look at this:
updated Aug 9, 2013
posted by Jubilado
Thanks, Jubilado! - Findy, Aug 9, 2013
1
vote
It's simple: The stone hit HIM. Le. Nothing to do with the stone.
Estuvo pegado por la piedra. La piedra le pegó.
I think. LOL, big laugh, I'm no expert!
updated Aug 10, 2013
posted by annierats
La piedra le pegó, is perfect. - chileno, Aug 9, 2013
Gracias, Chileno. - annierats, Aug 10, 2013
