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why is milk pronounced la leche instead of el leche

why is milk pronounced la leche instead of el leche

1
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I need to know why you say la leche instead of el leche?

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updated May 26, 2010
posted by overpar102
Bienvenido al foro. Welcome to the forum. - 0074b507, May 26, 2010

7 Answers

1
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Why it is feminine may have something to do with female animals (cows, nannies, etc. ) providing milk rather than their male counterparts (bulls, billies, etc.) Or the RAE flipped a coin. grin

updated May 26, 2010
edited by 0074b507
posted by 0074b507
1
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Hola overpar102, Welcome to SpanishDict!!

Leche is a feminine noun, therefore it needs the feminine article (la) not the masculine article (el).

updated May 26, 2010
posted by hlsbookworm
0
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Here we go again with the uncountable nouns. Q, I'm not arguing against your statement but thought I would bring up a past thread on this.

updated May 26, 2010
posted by Yeser007
Who ever said that we speak using correct grammar? I understand it when someone says "give me a beer", but that is only an abbreviated context that we have learned to use for bottle, glass, mug, etc. of beer. (it's implied). That does not prevent beer - 0074b507, May 26, 2010
from being an uncountable noun. - 0074b507, May 26, 2010
prescriptive/descritive... which is correct? How the rules state that something should be stated or how it is understood according to common usage? Arguments for both viewpoints. - 0074b507, May 26, 2010
0
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Maybe it's because el leche would have two ls next to each other??? I don't know if it's los leches or las leches in the plural, but that would answer the question.

updated May 26, 2010
posted by tezp2002
leche is an uncountable noun. 2 pails of milk, 2 glasses of milk, but not 2 milks. 2 milks would only refer to 2 brands or types of milk. Therefore, las leches is not very common. - 0074b507, May 26, 2010
0
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Porque sí! Because it is! There´s no real reason, you just have to learn it. There are a few exceptions like this (la calle, for example) There is a reason why agua is preceeded by el, however. It´s not a masculine noun, but if a feminine noun starts with "a", you use "el" in the singular because otherwise it would be "la agua" which means there would be two "a"s together. We know it´s not masculine because in the plural it´s "las aguas" and not "los aguas."

updated May 26, 2010
posted by tezp2002
it has to begin with a stressed a. la abertura is a feminine noun beginning with "a", but doest not take a masculine article because the intial "a" is not stressed. - 0074b507, May 26, 2010
0
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Feminine words can end in e. Masculine words can end in e, therefore you need to know the article (el or la) that goes with a particular word. Just to confuse, some words ending in "a" are masculine and have el instead of la e.g. el agua (water) Why??........don't know sorry.

updated Feb 24, 2010
posted by phlitty
0
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It is a femine noun so therefore "la"

updated Feb 24, 2010
posted by Yeser007