In reviewing the thread "Why doesn't Biblia follow the intonation rules'", I decided to look up this word that Lazarus cited as an example:
It is interesting to me that in four dictionaries that I consulted, this word is listed without the accent. One of those dictionaries was the one on this website, and it even gives the audio pronunciation similar to the English pronunciation, with the stress on the first syllable. The only two dictionaries to include the accent (of the ones I consulted) were RAE and WordMagic.
I agree that if the Spanish pronunciation of the word is "POH-ni", and "y" is a consonant, then it requires the accent.
To what do you attribute this discrepancy'