HomeQ&AWhy is the ser from different from other er verb?

Why is the ser from different from other er verb?

0
votes

Hi,

I was wondering why the ser form different from the other er verb. Why is it not like this:

single plural
first sero seremos
second seres sereis
third sere seren

Thanks.

1450 views
updated JUN 14, 2009
posted by amishera

4 Answers

0
votes

I hope you got the explanations that helped you.
I would just point out that in Danish for example the "to be" verb is "er" and is the same for all persons.
I am = jeg er
he is = han er
you are = du / de er
we are = vi er
etc.
It is also the same in the past tense.
I was = Jeg var
etc. etc.

updated JUN 14, 2009
posted by ian-hill
0
votes

I was wondering why the ser form different from the other er verb. Why is it not like this:

single plural

first sero seremos

second seres sereis

third sere seren

Strange! This verb is perfectly regular in the future tense, so it behaves like any other -er verb in the future tense:

s-eré
s-erás
s-erá
s-emos
s-eréis
s-erán

Now, if you were actually referring to the present tense, you were using the wrong conjugation pattern, but let me ask you this: Why is the verb "to be" in English not like this?

I be
You be
He be
We be
You be
They be

The answer to this question should be suffient to explain why "ser" changes so much in present tense.

updated JUN 13, 2009
posted by lazarus1907
0
votes

"ser" in Spanish, "etre" in French, Whatever the infinitive is in Italian and "to be" in English are the most irregular verbs in each language. All languages tend to develop in the direction of simplification (in other words the usual changes over time are to replace irregular forms with regular ones). The most common words (which are by definition the most often used) are the most resistant to this kind of change because the frequency of their use serves to reinforce the remembering of the irregularities). While "ser" is the quintessentially irregular verb in Spanish, if you look at the usual lists of irregular verbs in Spanish, French, English, etc., you will find that most of them are among the most often used verbs (and, for this very reason, should be memorized).

updated JUN 13, 2009
posted by samdie
0
votes

Well, first of all, that isn't the correct way to conjugate ER verbs. To conjugate regular verbs in the present indicative, you must take of the infinitive ending (ar/er/ir), which leaves you with the stem for the verb. Then you add the following endings to conjugate:

AR
yo -o
tú -as
él/ella/Ud. -a
nosotros -amos
vosotros -áis
ellos(as)/Uds. -an

ER
yo -o
tú -es
él/ella/Ud. -e
nosotros -emos
vosotros -éis
ellos(as)/Uds. -en

Regular IR verbs are exactly the same except that nosotros is -imos and vosotros is ís.

So, to give you an example, let's conjugate the verb "comer" (to eat):
como
comes
come
comemos
coméis
comen

As to the answer to your question about why the verb "ser" is different: it's totally irregular. Someone else could probably tell you the linguistics as to why it's irregular, but just know that this is how you conjugate it:

soy
eres
es
somos
sois
son

updated JUN 13, 2009
posted by Nick-Cortina
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