Mandé que se lo limpiar o Mandé que lo limpie
¿Cual es'
8 Answers
Yes banns
Se lo mandé limpiar. Le mandé que lo limpiara....
I'm not sure that I follow the subject of limpiar being le. In either construction I see the le being the recipent of the verb's action not the performer of it. However, my mistake was that I was misreading the sentence from the beginning. Thank you for the explanation, however.
just to make sure, does it say':
I asked that it was cleaned for him/her.
I ordered him to clean it.
Thus "him" is the "subject" of limpiar (not in the strict grammatical sense but in the sense that it refers to the person who is going to (gunna) do the cleaning).
In both cases the (implicit) subject is "yo" (if you mean the subject of the sentence [and of "mandar"]) If you mean the subject of "limpiar", then it's "le" (or,rather, would be were it not for considerations of euphony) (or, more precisely, the "referent of "le").
The subjects change in this case, and it's optional to use the infinitive here. At any rate, the person(s) we're trying to influence is the subject in the subordinate. Not all verbs succumb to this, and it's all a mess, as everything is, when you get into details.
Saludos 
Se lo mandé limpiar. Le mandé que lo limpiara....
Wasn't the use of the clause over the use of the 2nd verb infinitive predicated by a change in verb subjects?
In both cases the (implicit) subject is "yo" (if you mean the subject of the sentence [and of "mandar"]) If you mean the subject of "limpiar", then it's "le" (or,rather, would be were it not for considerations of euphony) (or, more precisely, the "referent of "le").
I'm not sure that I follow the subject of limpiar being le. In either construction I see the le being the recipent of the verb's action not the performer of it. However, my mistake was that I was misreading the sentence from the beginning. Thank you for the explanation, however.
just to make sure, does it say':
I asked that it was cleaned for him/her.
Se lo mandé limpiar. Le mandé que lo limpiara....
Wasn't the use of the clause over the use of the 2nd verb infinitive predicated by a change in verb subjects?
In both cases the (implicit) subject is "yo" (if you mean the subject of the sentence [and of "mandar"]) If you mean the subject of "limpiar", then it's "le" (or,rather, would be were it not for considerations of euphony) (or, more precisely, the "referent of "le").
Se lo mandé limpiar. Le mandé que lo limpiara....
Wasn't the use of the clause over the use of the 2nd verb infinitive predicated by a change in verb subjects'
¿Cuál es'
Se lo mandé limpiar. Le mandé que lo limpiara. Le he mandado que lo limpie/iara.
hmmmm, mandé que lo limpie me parece cojo, le falta le, pero esto te lo explica mejor Lazarus.
La primera opción no es correcta.
