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Porqué estás no me escuchando

  1. Porqué estás no me escuchando
  2. Porqué no estás me escuchando
updated ABR 11, 2012
posted by violet
If you are asking should say "¿Porqué no me estás escuchando?" but if it's the reason you should say "Porque no me estás escuchando" - Jessi1707, ABR 11, 2012

2 Answers


The direct object clitics "me", "te", "lo", "la","nos" "os", "los", "las", "se" must always appear right before the verb.
The indirect object clitics "me", "te", "le", "se", "nos" "os", "se" must appear right before the verb, but also before the particles mentioned above, if they are present.
In many circumstances, these particles can be attached at the end of the verb when this is not a conjugated form, but either you do it with both, or you don't at all.

Te negative "no" must always be right before the verb in Spanish, but also always before the particles mentioned above.

  1. Your "no" is after the verb, and it should appear before it.
  2. Your "me" is betwee two verbs. It should be either before them, or attached to the second one.

The correct spelling and grammar is this (two options):

¿Por qué no me estás escuchando?
¿Por qué no estás escuchándome?

"Por qué" must be written in two words here.

por qué = why
porque = because
porqué = reason

updated ABR 30, 2009
posted by lazarus1907

Ningunas- the placement of the "me" is incorrect. You have two options. You can either place it before "estás," or after "escuchando":
- Porqué no me estás escuchando
- Porqué no estás escuchándome

  • Remember, when you add an indirect/direct (or both) to the end of a gerund (-ing phrase in English) you need to add an accent. This can be done by counting backwords from the end of the gerund with the ID/DO thrice (from the vowels) and then accenting that vowel.
updated ABR 30, 2009
posted by Kerri
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