se at the end of a verb
If this has been in a lesson, I've missed it and hope someone can explain it to me.
Why do some of the verbs have "se" at the end yet still seem to mean the same thing.
Saltar and saltarse for example. When they are conjugated, the only difference is that saltarse has pronouns in front of each conjugation.
Thanks.
12 Answers
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Thanks Lazarus. So if I wanted to say "I like apples." it would be "Me gusta manzanas" where "apples" is the subject, not "I" and "gustar" is conjugated to "apples".
Your "me" and your grammatical explanation are correct, but if you say apples, in plural, the verb must be plural too (gustan). Also, when the subject is generic, unlike in English, you have to use a definite article too:
Me gustan las manzanas
Yes, in English you say "Steel is hard", and we say "El acero es duro" (the steel is hard), with an article. You'll have to get used to these differences. So, when the subject is generic:
Me gusta el/la [whatever you like]
Me gustan los/las [whatever you like]
If the subject is specific:
Me gusta [whatever you like] (eg. Me gusta Laura)
Me gustan [whatever you like]
For other persons:
Me gusta Laura
Te gusta Laura
Le gusta Laura
Nos gusta Laura
Os gusta Laura
Les gusta Laura
As you can see, the subject (this "Laura") causes a good impression on everyone (me, te, le,...), i.e. we all like her.
I understand, what I do with the lessons now(after forgetting much of it) is, I do everything twice, watch the video twice, do each exercise twice and I usually understand and remember it much better. Also there are some options for the recall and listen exercise sections such as "Flip Terms" which I use once. That way I notice the spanish word with the picture, and then flipping terms is where it gives you the spanish word and you fill in the english word. ( This way you get 2 memorization methods for the vocabulary for that section)
May be a little of topic but I have found this to be very helpful for memorizing and understanding.
Eh, on the me gusta, its basically saying that "it is pleasing to me" and the form of gustar you use depends on the subject you are talking about.
For example. "Me gustas" I like you. "Me gusta la comida china" I like chinese food. but "Me gusto" would probably mean "I like myself."
- Learn Spanish 1.6 also covers this.
Thanks Brandon. I went back and looked at lesson 1.6 and it explained it nicely. At the time I originally did that lesson, I wasn't very good at conjugating verbs so I didn't pay as close attention as I should have.
Thanks Lazarus. So if I wanted to say "I like apples." it would be "Me gusta manzanas" where "apples" is the subject, not "I" and "gustar" is conjugated to "apples".
Thanks to everyone - the more explanations the merrier. I at least have a vague idea about how it works and what I'll need to look out for.
One other quick (hopefully) question. Why do people say "me gusta" for "I like"? me = my and gusta is the 3rd person singular for "to like". Wouldn't it be correct to just say "gusto" or "yo gusto"?
Do you know the verb "disgust" in English? Why do you say "something disgusts me" and not "I disgust something"? Because the verb is dis-gust, where "gust" is like "gustar".
English used to use the verb "gustar" also the way we do now. When you like something, it is not a voluntary action, like in "Like it! I command you", but rather a description of how things affect you in a positive or a negative manner, so in Spanish we make the things that we like the subject of the sentence.
Eh, on the me gusta, its basically saying that "it is pleasing to me" and the form of gustar you use depends on the subject you are talking about.
For example. "Me gustas" I like you. "Me gusta la comida china" I like chinese food. but "Me gusto" would probably mean "I like myself."
- Learn Spanish 1.6 also covers this.
Thanks to everyone - the more explanations the merrier. I at least have a vague idea about how it works and what I'll need to look out for.
One other quick (hopefully) question. Why do people say "me gusta" for "I like"? me = my and gusta is the 3rd person singular for "to like". Wouldn't it be correct to just say "gusto" or "yo gusto"'
Hi Lazarus
Surely the phrases you have quoted mean he wants to wash himself[i][/i] or am I misunderstanding the use of "se" here.
No, Eddy, you are interpreting them correctly.
They do not mean the same: sometimes there is a huge difference, sometimes a very subtle one; but there is always a difference. This "se" is attached to imperatives, and it can appear attached or detached with infinitives and gerunds.
Saltarse un semáforo = to go through a red light
Saltar un semáforo = jump above a trafic light (10 times higher than the word record!)
So, the answer to your question is just to understand where and how 'se' is used, which is one of the most complex topics in Spanish (not even 500 pages long books can cover this topic thoroughly), so no definite simple answer can be given to account for all its uses. Try asking about its usage using a specific example.
Examples where the 'se' can appear before the verb, or attached to it:
Se quiere lavar = He wants to wash myself
Quiere lavarse = He wants to wash myself
Hi Lazarus
Surely the phrases you have quoted mean he wants to wash himself[i][/i] or am I misunderstanding the use of "se" here.
If this has been in a lesson, I've missed it and hope someone can explain it to me.
Why do some of the verbs have "se" at the end yet still seem to mean the same thing.
Saltar and saltarse for example. When they are conjugated, the only difference is that saltarse has pronouns in front of each conjugation.
Thanks.
This is probably a more complex issue than you realize. What you are contrasting is pronomial form of the verb (ends in se) with the (I want to say normal, but let's say non-pronomial) usage. (no se at the end)
The pronomial verb is used for many purposes including showing reflexive verb action, reciprocal verb action, impersonal verb action, expressing completeness, etc.
Let's use a verb that is commonly discussed on this forum. Ir (non-pronomial) and irse (pronomial). While you could say that they have the same meaning (to go) the pronomial usage carries a different nuance of meaning as Lazarus has explained many times here.
Voy (non-pronomial) places emphasis on your destination. As in Voy a casa. Used to tell you where I am going.
Me voy (pronomial usage) places emphasis on the verb action of leaving a present destination. Me voy a casa places emphasis on the fact that I am getting the heck out of here and going somewhere else (home).
So without trying to give too complex an answer (I'm not a native, nor a grammarian. I'm just regurgitating information that I've read here)let's just say using the pronomial form of a verb allows you to express a nuance of the non-promomial verb's meaning. It's similar to saying that one uses a different mood form (subjunctive, indicative, imperative, etc.) of the verb to express connotations of doubt, denial, probability,compliance etc.
Hardly a complete answer, but as I mentioned, this can be a complex subject if you get into the details.
Well, if Lazurus' post had been visible when I wrote this I wouldn't have wasted our times.
They do not mean the same: sometimes there is a huge difference, sometimes a very subtle one; but there is always a difference. This "se" is attached to imperatives, and it can appear attached or detached with infinitives and gerunds.
Saltarse un semáforo = to go through a red light
Saltar un semáforo = jump above a trafic light (10 times higher than the word record!)
So, the answer to your question is just to understand where and how 'se' is used, which is one of the most complex topics in Spanish (not even 500 pages long books can cover this topic thoroughly), so no definite simple answer can be given to account for all its uses. Try asking about its usage using a specific example.
Examples where the 'se' can appear before the verb, or attached to it:
Se quiere lavar = He wants to wash myself
Quiere lavarse = He wants to wash myself