How do we form the present perfect tense?
For example how do we say "i have never seen them"'
6 Answers
Gracias,
I really thought I must have been absent for that class!!
In the South American country, where I grew up they taught us and spoke Castilian Spanish. (This is a very proper Spanish which I understand is the language of Spain.)
As for saying les instead of los, I double checked with my husband to make sure. His native language is Spanish (South American) and he tells me that is is proper to say les, but los is also acceptable. (This case is as you noted with le and lo - except in a plural form. ) Los would sound better if referring to objects, of course.
One could also say correctly "Nunca he visto a ellos", so my husband says, but it sounds a bit awkward to me.
I do not claim to be a grammar expert, I mostly learned Spanish from speaking with friends. Just as most of us learn English! :- )
Mmm, I would usually use lo(s) here, too.
N. Limones
I have a lot of trouble with direct & indirect object pronouns & I am even more confused now.
In Nunca los he visto.", why do you say it should be les? The way I understand it, is that them is the direct object of seen
& therefore los. I learned that if you can say to, for, from it's le or les. And you can't say seen to, for or from. I know Spain uses le instead of lo for masculine direct object pronoun, is that the case here?
Would appreciate your help in making me understand.
Yo nunca les he visto.
I have never seen them. is : (Yo) Nunca los he visto.
To form it use a present tense form of haber + past participleI have read the book. Yo he leido el libro.
He has written a novel. ÿl ha escrito una novela.
