vos/vosotros
I have never heard these words used. Where, when. and how are they appropriate'
11 Answers
LadyDi said:
Just to add to Janice's explanation, "vos" means the same as "tú" (in the singular form). Many countries in Central and South America use this personal pronoun instead.
Example:
Haceme (vos) un favor. = Hazme (tú) un favor.
Permitime (vos) ver las fotos. = Permíteme (tú) ver las fotos.
"Many"? I would have thought "a few". At any rate, you should note that where it is used, the form of the verb is different from either the tú/vsotros form that is used in Spain.
Just to add to Janice's explanation, "vos" means the same as "tú" (in the singular form). Many countries in Central and South America use this personal pronoun instead.
Example:
Haceme (vos) un favor. = Hazme (tú) un favor.
Permitime (vos) ver las fotos. = Permíteme (tú) ver las fotos.
Let me try, Robert Bennett, and someone will correct me if I am wrong.
Vosotros means "you" when there is more than one of "you".
It is the plural for "tú".
In English we used to have a form like "tú" -> "thou" but we do not use it anymore in everyday speech.
The use that I know for vosotros is to express the plural "you" as the subject of the sentence.
Vosotros habláis.
Vosotros bailáis.
But on this forum I have learned that you will only hear this "vosotros" in peninsular Spain whereas there is another form that is used in other Spanish speaking countries such as those in Latin America. I don't know what that other form is, though.
I don't know about "vos" - only that "os" is the pronoun "you" when "you" is an object, direct or indirect in a Spanish sentence.
Veo a os. I see you.
Os doy el libro. I give you the book.
...or...Os doy las gracias, which is what I will in fact do -- thank the administrators -- if they would kindly delete this post if it is useless and/or incorrect.
But on this forum I have learned that you will only hear this "vosotros" in peninsular Spain whereas there is another form that is used in other Spanish speaking countries such as those in Latin America. I don't know what that other form is, though.
The Latin American the "other" form is ustedes. When you wish to say you all (you plural) you use ustedes (whether informal or formal).
Veo a os. I see you.(all)
Veo a vosotros. (not os).
Os doy el libro. I give you (all) the book.
I don't know about "vos" - only that "os" is the pronoun "you" when "you" is an object, direct or indirect in a Spanish sentence
Yes, os is the d.o.p. or i.o.p., but not the prepositional pronoun.
Veo a ti. (not te)
Veo a vosotros. (not os)
Vos - Tu o Usted Vosotros - Ustedes
¡Os agradezco a todos! samdie, Rodrigo, Neil Coffey,YCZ
No, apparently it is used to some extent or other in practically all countries of Central and South America (see C. Mar-Molinero, "The Spanish-speaking World", ch. 6; M. Stewart, "The Spanish Language Today", ch. 6).
Note that the verb forms used with vos differ from place to place. In Chile, Ecuador and Bolivia, they apparently are often identical to the tú forms.
samdie said:
"Many"? I would have thought "a few". At any rate, you should note that where it is used, the form of the verb is different from either the tú/vsotros form that is used in Spain.
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It also appears that in almost all countries of South America, tú and vos co-exist to some extent or other, though with differences in the relative informality and stigmatisation of the two forms of address.
LadyDi said:
Just to add to Janice's explanation, "vos" means the same as "tú" (in the singular form). Many countries in Central and South America use this personal pronoun instead.
Example:
Haceme (vos) un favor. = Hazme (tú) un favor.
Permitime (vos) ver las fotos. = Permíteme (tú) ver las fotos.
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"vos" and "tu" mean you, vos is used in argentina
"vosotros" means you (more than one person) used in spain
saludos
Thy kind help with the vos/vosotros matter was most appreciated;my delay in thanking thee is because I did not know where to put it.( I am very stupid about ALL computer things)Am I to understand that "vos" is nominative case only and requires second person singular forms of the verb exclusively? Ye(Janice & LadyDi) have been very helpful!(It is just possible my practice with the English familiar forms could be a bit off! Feel free!)
that´s because you can figure out the pron. by the verb be used.