Mexican spanish
What are the 1st person plural forms of "to be" used in mexico'I'm very confused tonight.Help me.
4 Answers
Jordan, there is not such thing as Latin American Spanish vs Spanish from Spain or "proper Latin American Spanish". You are misinformed. Proper written Spanish is exactly the same everywhere (yes, in Spain too), and virtually undistinguishable. There are differences from country to country mostly in spoken and colloquial Spanish, and Spain differs form the the rest in the pronunciation of one letter, and the use of the second person - small details that can be easily learnt. You'll find that, say, the way Mexicans speak differs more from the Spanish of certain Latin American countries (especially the south) than it does with the one from Spain in many points. The differences are not that significant, and we have no problem understanding one another perfectly.
If every time you see something unusual or different from English, you are going to reach the conclusion that you are being given the Spanish from Spain and the Spanish from Latin American versions -which seem to be different and incompatible to you-, you are going to find it very difficult to learn Spanish properly. "Ser" and "estar" are used in all countries, but both are translated as "to be" in English. It is not a Spain vs Lain America problem, but a Spanish vs English problem you are having.
Jordan said:
Why does Paralee not teach this'Does she teach proper latin american spanish or what you would use is Spain'Because she used somos y estamos.
somos = 1st plural of 'ser'
estamos = 1st plural of 'estar'
They are two different verbs (which to the confusion of English speakers are both translated as 'we are'). The only difference between Mexican and Peninsular Spanish (that relates to conjugations of verbs) is that the 'vosotros' form (2nd plural) is not used in Mexico.
Why does Paralee not teach this'Does she teach proper latin american spanish or what you would use is Spain'Because she used somos y estamos.
somos - we are
