Question on this weeks lesson 2.10 - Preterit vs. Imperfect.

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On the watch portion of the lesson a time stage is set using the Imperfect Tense. I believe there is an inconsistency. The following 3 sentences are written and spoken:

  1. Eran las tres de la tarde durante el verano.
  2. Eran las nueve de la noche.
  3. Era las tres de la tarde. (here "Era" and is written "Eran" is spoken)

My question is: Shouldn't "Era" 3rd- prs.- sgl. Imperfect be used for all 3 cases? If not why'

1876 views
updated ENE 15, 2009
posted by Daniel

5 Answers

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Thank you again. I was sure that "once again, because that's the way it is" was the correct answer. You both are always a great help.

samdie said:

Daniel said:

Why is it "Eran"? I have always used "Era" -- I will have to step back and correct myself now. Also does't "Era" translate as "It was" and "Eran" as "They were". I am sure you are correct, but I do not understand.Why when setting a time stage is 3rd- prs.- sgl. Imperfect used for the following:Había una vez... (Once upon a time...)

One could say "For the same reason that i'ts 'la una' but 'las dos' 'las tres', etc." Basically it comes down to, that's the way they say it (and it happens to be different from the way such things are done in English).Haber is always used in the 3rd person singular (once again, because that's the way it is).

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updated ENE 15, 2009
posted by Daniel
0
votes

Daniel said:

Why is it "Eran"? I have always used "Era" -- I will have to step back and correct myself now. Also does't "Era" translate as "It was" and "Eran" as "They were". I am sure you are correct, but I do not understand. Why when setting a time stage is 3rd- prs.- sgl. Imperfect used for the following:

Había una vez... (Once upon a time...)
One could say "For the same reason that i'ts 'la una' but 'las dos' 'las tres', etc." Basically it comes down to, that's the way they say it (and it happens to be different from the way such things are done in English).

Haber is always used in the 3rd person singular (once again, because that's the way it is).

updated ENE 15, 2009
posted by samdie
0
votes

Why is it "Eran"? I have always used "Era" -- I will have to step back and correct myself now. Also does't "Era" translate as "It was" and "Eran" as "They were". I am sure you are correct, but I do not understand.

Why when setting a time stage is 3rd- prs.- sgl. Imperfect used for the following:

Había una vez... (Once upon a time...)

samdie said:

The 3rd should be "eran".With hours 2-12 the verb (son,eran,serán, etc.) is plural, while with 1:xx, the verb is singular (es, era, etc.)

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updated ENE 15, 2009
posted by Daniel
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votes

Most definitely "Eran".

updated ENE 15, 2009
posted by lazarus1907
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votes

The 3rd should be "eran".
With hours 2-12 the verb (son,eran,serán, etc.) is plural, while with 1:xx, the verb is singular (es, era, etc.)

updated ENE 15, 2009
posted by samdie