When ordering something from a waiter

0
votes

if you were to ask for a drink would you say

Puedo tener una botella de aqua (can i have a bottle of water)

or would it be

puede tengo una botella de aqua

which one is more acceptable'

4198 views
updated SEP 2, 2010
edited by --Mariana--
posted by Dp

12 Answers

0
votes

A Latin American friend of mine was telling me that when ordering in Madrid, people say:

"Tráeme una botella de agua." Bring me a bottle of water.

This, she said, sounds rude to her ears, but that is how people order here.

updated SEP 2, 2010
posted by JoyceM
0
votes

Is there a problem with simply stating, "Yo quiero pedir una botella de agua por favor."

updated SEP 2, 2010
edited by Marco-Pollo
posted by Marco-Pollo
0
votes

Ian Francis Hill said:

Puedo tener ia correct. at least it can be understood though in Spanish it sounds strange.Una cerveza por favor is easierPuede tengo would translate as he , she , you formal + I have ( very confusing)In a sentence usually the first verb is conjugated Puedo from Poder I can or can I and Tengo from tenerhope this helpsIan

I have to agree with James. "Puedo tener" sounds as if you translated it word for word from English. No native speaker would say it that way nor is it correct.

updated DIC 23, 2008
posted by LadyDi
0
votes

Puedo tener ia correct. at least it can be understood though in Spanish it sounds strange.
Una cerveza por favor is easier

Puede tengo would translate as he , she , you formal + I have ( very confusing)
In a sentence usually the first verb is conjugated Puedo from Poder I can or can I and Tengo from tener
hope this helps
Ian

updated DIC 23, 2008
posted by ian-hill
0
votes

Dp said:

so would either of my two options not be correct at all?

No, neither is correct. Asking "puedo tener" is like asking "am I capable of possessing." This use of "have" in English is rather idiomatic, and "May (can) I have" really means "Will you give/bring me."

"Puede tengo" means "you can I have," and as such makes no sense.

updated DIC 23, 2008
posted by 00bacfba
0
votes

so would either of my two options not be correct at all'

updated DIC 23, 2008
posted by Dp
0
votes

Thank you.

James Santiago said:

>

updated DIC 23, 2008
posted by 0074b507
0
votes

Well, I was telling the OP how to say what the English said. There was no please.

In asking a waiter to bring me something, I often omit the "please," depending on the context. The politeness is often conveyed by tone of voice and facial expression.

As for the grammar, the conditional is used here as an ellipsis of the full sentence, which would indeed include the past subjunctive.

¿[Si te pidiera,] me podrías traer una botella de agua?

This is the same in English:

[If I asked you,] could you [i.e., would you be able to] bring me a bottle of water?

The implied hypothetical question is what conveys the politeness, because it turns a direct request into a mere question.

updated DIC 23, 2008
posted by 00bacfba
0
votes

I meant that you did not say . Your mother would be chiding you for your lack of courtesy.

James Santiago said:

Por favor. Your mother is smacking you upside the head.I beg your pardon?

>

updated DIC 23, 2008
posted by 0074b507
0
votes

Por favor. Your mother is smacking you upside the head.

I beg your pardon'

updated DIC 23, 2008
posted by 00bacfba
0
votes

Por favor. Your mother is smacking you upside the head. I assume this is the Spanish equivalent of saying rather than

updated DIC 23, 2008
posted by 0074b507
0
votes

Neither one. I would say:

¿Me podrías traer una botella de agua? (aqua is Italian)

or just

¿Me traes (das) una botella de agua'

updated DIC 23, 2008
posted by 00bacfba