Dile

0
votes

Dile porfavor que esta en mi mente.

In this sentence I don't understand why "le" is used. I'm guessing it's an indirect object pronoun but I don't understand why. I keep asking "to whom, for whom". But I'm still not getting it here.

Thank you!

14799 views
updated MAR 6, 2017
posted by Anna

12 Answers

1
vote

Anna said:

One more thing. Could this sentence also be saying "tell him/her that she/he is on my mind."?

Yes, it could. Actually, that is the only good translation. "Tell him what is on my mind" would be "Dile por favor lo que está en mi mente." In my previous posts I (and others) failed to notice this, because we were focusing on the "dile" part of your question.

updated MAR 14, 2011
posted by 00bacfba
1
vote

Matt wrote:
it isn't necessary, but again, it is just for reference.

I disagree. It is necessary here. If the sentence were "Di por favor qué está en mi mente," the translation would be "Please say what is on my mind." There is no reference at all to someone else. Furthermore, "dile" means "tell (someone)," as opposed to "say (something)."

Omitting the pronoun here would result in an odd Spanish sentence.

updated MAR 14, 2011
posted by 00bacfba
0
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AHHHH HAAA! Thanks!

James Santiago said:

Yes, you pretty much have it. But remember that in English we often omit the "to," which may confuse you. For example, we say "tell him," but not "tell to him." Actually, this is rather odd, because if there is an object, we do say the "to," as in "Give it to him" or "Tell the secret to him" (of course, we can also say "Tell him the secret").

Rather than limiting yourself to a translation with "to," just ask yourself if the verb is relating to someone. Therefore, "Le encantar mirar la luna" means "He loves looking at the moon," and while there is no "to," the verb encantar relates to "him," and the pronoun is therefore necessary.

>

updated MAR 6, 2017
posted by Anna
I see that this is an old post. James Santiago offered some great help, but wrote "Le encantar mirar la luna" means "He loves looking at the moon,". Should it be "encanta"? (I realize this isn't the topic of discussion.)
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As atonement, I will add that "está en mi mente" in this context sounds like a translation from English. I think a native Spanish speaker would say "Dile por favor que estoy pensando en él/ella," which is "tell him/her that she/he is on my mind."

updated ENE 2, 2009
posted by 00bacfba
0
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Well I'll let it slip this time!

James Santiago said:

Anna said:

One more thing. Could this sentence also be saying "tell him/her that she/he is on my mind."?

Yes, it could. Actually, that is the only good translation. "Tell him what is on my mind" would be "Dile por favor lo que está en mi mente." In my previous posts I (and others) failed to notice this, because we were focusing on the "dile" part of your question.

>

updated ENE 2, 2009
posted by Anna
0
votes

One more thing. Could this sentence also be saying "tell him/her that she/he is on my mind."'

updated ENE 2, 2009
posted by Anna
0
votes

Yes, you pretty much have it. But remember that in English we often omit the "to," which may confuse you. For example, we say "tell him," but not "tell to him." Actually, this is rather odd, because if there is an object, we do say the "to," as in "Give it to him" or "Tell the secret to him" (of course, we can also say "Tell him the secret").

Rather than limiting yourself to a translation with "to," just ask yourself if the verb is relating to someone. Therefore, "Le encantar mirar la luna" means "He loves looking at the moon," and while there is no "to," the verb encantar relates to "him," and the pronoun is therefore necessary.

updated ENE 2, 2009
posted by 00bacfba
0
votes

Got it! I still need a little more help. What I wasn't getting is this:

To help me know when to have an indirect object pronoun I've been asking "to whom or for whom" but I struggled with this sentence. I think because in English, there's no "to" in this sentence. For comparison:

Estoy escribiéndoles la carta a ellos. To whom are you writing a letter? To them/les.

So with Dile por favor..... is it - "to whom are you telling'" "Her/le" ?

James Santiago said:

Matt wrote: it isn't necessary, but again, it is just for reference.

I disagree. It is necessary here. If the sentence were "Di por favor qué está en mi mente," the translation would be "Please say what is on my mind." There is no reference at all to someone else. Furthermore, "dile" means "tell (someone)," as opposed to "say (something)."

Omitting the pronoun here would result in an odd Spanish sentence.

>

updated ENE 2, 2009
posted by Anna
0
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Matt said:

it is an indirect object pronoun, but is just used for emphasis. I have often seen it attached to the imperative form of decir. the actual sentence would translate just to "say what is on my mind"

It is not exactly for emphasis. I suggest that you read my post above.

updated ENE 1, 2009
posted by lazarus1907
0
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it is an indirect object pronoun, but is just used for emphasis. I have often seen it attached to the imperative form of decir. the actual sentence would translate just to "please tell him/her what is on my mind"

for further reference,

di = say (imperative tú form of decir)
dile = say to him/her or tell him/her (remember, object pronouns are attached to the end of affirmative commands)

it isn't necessary, but again, it is just for reference.

updated ENE 1, 2009
posted by Matt
0
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It is an indirect object, and It prepares the speaker for what it is about to come. English does the same with different structures:

I like it very much when you do that.

That "it" and "when you do that" are the same thing, and yet, that "it" is there. In Spanish that "it" cannot be used, and it would sound extremely redundant even if you tried. Native Spanish speakers never understand why to add that redundant "it" that we don't use or need. Its function is to prepare the speaker for what it is about to come. Just accept it.

updated ENE 1, 2009
posted by lazarus1907
0
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"Tell him (her) what is on my mind." The "him" or "her" would be the indirect object (Grammarians, please correct me if I'm wrong). The "what" is the direct object.

updated ENE 1, 2009
posted by CalvoViejo