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Vayan,fuéremos,fuéramos

Vayan,fuéremos,fuéramos

0
votes

ojalá vayamos al cine mañana.
i was trying to use the subjuntivo futuro for the verb ir (fuéremos) but almost everyone told me that its wrong, well i didn`t understand what is wrong cuz they couldn`t explain in english but they told me that the correct one is vayamos and they gave me another example with fuéramos wich i don`t remember.
i would like to put fuéremos in a sentence AND if its wrong to use it i would like to know why''

3676 views
updated Dec 21, 2008
posted by PUNISHER

8 Answers

0
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it is my understanding that even the future tense in english is often used like the present indicative tense in spanish. for example, in english the phrase "tomorrow we'll see eachother" would most typically be said in spanish as "mañana nos vemos" using a present indicative reflexive..

updated Dec 21, 2008
posted by Matt
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Natasha said:

After all, when's the last time you heard someone (in speech) actually use the future perfect in English? ("I will have gone shopping before he arrives." )

That's interesting, because even a native who has never gone to school would use the equivalent tense in Spanish in a normal conversation.
*
Me habré ido a comprar antes de que vengas.*

It is a pretty common tense in Spanish.

updated Dec 20, 2008
posted by lazarus1907
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Ok well,, for sure that makes sense (kind of) now, but atleast i have something to annoy my teacher with when my next spanish course starts. 'always looking for trouble'

updated Dec 19, 2008
posted by PUNISHER
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why we should have a tense which is never used

The subjunctive is nearly extinct in English (persisting mainly in set phrases like "If I were you . . ."). As has been mentioned on the forum before, traditional distinctions (such as lie / lay, may / can) are also fast disappearing. We shouldn't be too surprised that an evidently unneeded conjugation in Spanish has become obsolete.

After all, when's the last time you heard someone (in speech) actually use the future perfect in English? ("I will have gone shopping before he arrives." )

updated Dec 19, 2008
posted by Natasha
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Thanks, Natasha and Lazarus, i tried to explain to punisher this morning, and he did not understand why we should have a tense which is never used. Another native was on the chat and he also said: no idea how to use that, jeje.
I also tried to find your thread, nati, thanks for including it.

updated Dec 19, 2008
posted by 00494d19
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This has been brought up more than once before, actually. I asked almost the same question here:

[url=http://my.spanishdict.com/forum/topic/show'id=1710195%3ATopic%3A488935]http://my.spanishdict.com/forum/topic/show'id=1710195%3ATopic%3A488935[/url]

updated Dec 19, 2008
posted by Natasha
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Punisher, all languages change over time, English included, and the future subjunctive has virtually disappeared from the Spanish language a long time ago. You can speak perfect Spanish without the future tense, so generally speaking, there is no point in learning it, unless you want to read unmodified 15th century novels.

Bear in mind that nowadays, most natives don't have a clue about how to use this tense, and many resources for Spanish learners give wrong rules about its usage. Just avoid it.

updated Dec 19, 2008
posted by lazarus1907
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i have been told that the subjuntivo futuro does exist only in books but its never used'''''''?
NOW that is strange,,,, to have something doesn`t exist.

updated Dec 19, 2008
posted by PUNISHER