types of words

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since im a female do i always use the feminine approach words such as cansada and tenga hambra''

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updated DIC 16, 2008
posted by TAT

11 Answers

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Marco, read samdie's reply to this other thread. It answers your question perfectly.

[url=http://my.spanishdict.com/forum/topic/show'id=1710195%3ATopic%3A844195]http://my.spanishdict.com/forum/topic/show'id=1710195%3ATopic%3A844195[/url]

updated DIC 16, 2008
posted by 00bacfba
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lazarus1907 said:

It should be, but I was a bit lazy.

Actually for me, it is not hard to realize that "come" refers to "él" y "ella" when I read sentences, but it is not easy to realize that it refers to "usted".

Do you have any good advice in order to help me figure this up easliy, Mi maestro?

Also does the third person form not refer to "it"?

Marco

updated DIC 16, 2008
posted by Marco-T
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It should be, but I was a bit lazy.

updated DIC 16, 2008
posted by lazarus1907
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lazarus1907 said:

The jargon could be avoided using an example in English:If you hear "talks", you must be referring to "he","she" or "it", since you can't say "I talks".If you hear "talk", it can be "I", "you", "we" or "they".This verb, like most, only differentiates between the third person singular (he/she/it) and the rest (I/you/we/they)The verb "to be" changes more:If you hear "am", it must be "I".If you hear "are", it must be "you", "we" or "they".If you hear "is", it must be "he", "she" or "it".In Spanish, all verbs are pretty much like "to be", but they have different forms for each person and number:If you hear "como", it must be "yo" (I).If you hear "comes", it must be "tú" (you - one person).

If you hear "come", it must be "él" or "ella" (he or she).

Mi maestro, is "usted" not included in?

Marco

If you hear "comemos", it must be "nosotros" or "nosotras" (we).If you hear "coméis", it must be "vosotros" or "vosotras" (you guys - two or more).If you hear "comen", it must be "ellos" or "ellas (they).Spanish verbs, like "to be", do not absorb the subject, but they have the ability to indicate person and number. In addition to that, Spanish verbs also inform about tense and mood, but that's another story.

>

updated DIC 16, 2008
posted by Marco-T
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The jargon could be avoided using an example in English:

If you hear "talks", you must be referring to "he","she" or "it", since you can't say "I talks".
If you hear "talk", it can be "I", "you", "we" or "they".
This verb, like most, only differentiates between the third person singular (he/she/it) and the rest (I/you/we/they)

The verb "to be" changes more:
If you hear "am", it must be "I".
If you hear "are", it must be "you", "we" or "they".
If you hear "is", it must be "he", "she" or "it".

In Spanish, all verbs are pretty much like "to be", but they have different forms for each person and number:
If you hear "como", it must be "yo" (I).
If you hear "comes", it must be "tú" (you - one person).
If you hear "come", it must be "él" or "ella" (he or she).
If you hear "comemos", it must be "nosotros" or "nosotras" (we).
If you hear "coméis", it must be "vosotros" or "vosotras" (you guys - two or more).
If you hear "comen", it must be "ellos" or "ellas (they).

Spanish verbs, like "to be", do not absorb the subject, but they have the ability to indicate person and number. In addition to that, Spanish verbs also inform about tense and mood, but that's another story.

updated DIC 16, 2008
posted by lazarus1907
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lazarus1907 said:

The subject IS NOT included in the verb, or the sentence would become a weird kind of impersonal one. What happens is that the verb contains person and number information, and therefore, personal pronouns are omitted most of the time, and they are only used to make contrasts. A missing or unnecessary subject does not mean that it has been absorbed or included in the verb, but it is implicit. Write that the subject in contained in the verb in a grammar exam, and they won't let you do it again after you fail.


Por supesto, tiene razón, Lazarus. El hecho es que esta chica está en un nivel donde probablamente no entendaría la diferencia entre "included" y "implicit." Trato de explicar puntos de gramatica en nivel apropriado para el estudiante, pero gracias por la correción.

updated DIC 16, 2008
posted by CalvoViejo
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The subject IS NOT included in the verb, or the sentence would become a weird kind of impersonal one. What happens is that the verb contains person and number information, and therefore, personal pronouns are omitted most of the time, and they are only used to make contrasts. A missing or unnecessary subject does not mean that it has been absorbed or included in the verb, but it is implicit. Write that the subject in contained in the verb in a grammar exam, and they won't let you do it again after you fail.

updated DIC 16, 2008
posted by lazarus1907
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Did you mean "which comes first, the subject or the verb'"? In Spanish the subject is often included in the verb, so is not stated separately. A noun can be the subject or an object (direct, indirect or positional). A pronoun can also be used anywhere a noun could be used.
Verbs, the words that show the action of the sentence, don't change to indicate gender. For example, "tengo" always means "I have" even if the person saying it is female.
Please check out the References page. There are descriptions of how the different parts of speech are used.

updated DIC 16, 2008
posted by CalvoViejo
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"Cansado / cansada" is an adjective, and it has to agree with the gender of the person or thing that modifies.
"Hambre" is a feminine noun, and it has to stay like that always. Other nouns that apply to sexual beings can change for males and females: gato / gata (male cat / female cat), profesor / profesora, but not all of these nouns change.

updated DIC 16, 2008
posted by lazarus1907
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in a basic sentence what comes first, the subject or the noun''?

Aaron T. said:

You wouldn't use tenga, unless you were using the subjunctive but if you don't know what the subjunctive is then don't worry about it right now. Use "tengo".And, I'm not sure if the "e" at the end of "hambre"(hunger) switches at all.Anyways, if the word that is describing you (like cansada) has the vowel at the end that does change with feminine/masculant then if it is describing you(Like... "Estoy cansada.[I'm tired.]" vs. "Está cansado.[He's tired.]") then you should change the ending vowel to "a". But remember, some words are tricky and sometimes don't change like you think they should.Also, if I'm even the slightest bit wrong with anything someone please correct me.

>

updated DIC 15, 2008
posted by TAT
0
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You wouldn't use tenga, unless you were using the subjunctive but if you don't know what the subjunctive is then don't worry about it right now. Use "tengo".
And, I'm not sure if the "e" at the end of "hambre"(hunger) switches at all.

Anyways, if the word that is describing you (like cansada) has the vowel at the end that does change with feminine/masculant then if it is describing you(Like... "Estoy cansada.[I'm tired.]" vs. "Está cansado.[He's tired.]") then you should change the ending vowel to "a". But remember, some words are tricky and sometimes don't change like you think they should.

Also, if I'm even the slightest bit wrong with anything someone please correct me.

updated DIC 15, 2008
posted by Aaron T---