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La gusta

1
vote

Hello again.

I recently heard a Spanish woman (from Castilla y Leon) say this. I asked her why and she said - "Well it makes sense to me because it refers to a woman"

Is this an example of the notorious "laismo" or is it just "slangy"?
Is it a regional thing or is it used throughout the Spanish-speaking world?

I'd be interested to hear your thoughts on this.

Patch

3110 views
updated Aug 9, 2010
posted by patch

10 Answers

0
votes

This is not true. In Castilla Leon the best Spanish is spoken, that's what they say, anyway. No dialect. They speak castellano.
This "laísmo" and "leísmo" is a widespread mistake many natives make.

updated Oct 27, 2008
posted by 00494d19
0
votes

i believe, and i could be wrong, but my Spanish teacher told me when he went to Spain that they (people from Castilla and Leon) have their own dialect on the Spanish language. so maybe that is the problem. but like forementioned i could be wrong.

updated Oct 26, 2008
posted by christian
0
votes

...Unfortunately, especially in the area of Palencia, this is rather common...

Palencia, Exactly!!! I think I'll regard it as slang, then. By the way - if you come to England you will also hear some gramatical "kicks-in-the-ear" hahaha.

Muchas gracias a todos por responder.

updated Oct 25, 2008
posted by patch
0
votes

El español es muy complicado.

Me parece que la Real Academia Española tiene mucho trabajo que hacer.

updated Oct 24, 2008
posted by 00769608
0
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As far as I know there is no such thing as "laismo

updated Oct 24, 2008
posted by 00494d19
0
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That sentence is completely unacceptable from a grammatical point of view, and it sounds like a kick in your ear if your native Spanish variation is not "laísta". One of my grandmothers speaks like that, and every time she does, I feel... well, I better don't say.

"Laísmo" is regarded in every country as an unacceptable grammatical mistake; at least in formal Spanish. I believe that it happens mostly in some areas of the centre and north of Spain only.

updated Oct 24, 2008
posted by lazarus1907
0
votes

As far as I know there is no such thing as "laismo". There is, however, "léismo" which refers to the use of the indirect object pronoun ("le") in situations where traditional grammar would call for the direct object pronoun ("lo" or "la").

updated Oct 24, 2008
posted by samdie
0
votes

patch said:

I can't remember the context, LadyDi just something like - A ella la gusta el vino tinto.

As far as I know, that's not possible in Spanish. It has to be "A ella le gusta el vino tinto."

updated Oct 24, 2008
posted by 00bacfba
0
votes

I can't remember the context, LadyDi just something like -

A ella la gusta el vino tinto.

Cheers

updated Oct 24, 2008
posted by patch
0
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I think we're going to need more context to go with your question. Personally, I can't think of any instance when someone would say it like that. It might just be slang.

updated Oct 24, 2008
posted by LadyDi