no gustar vs. tenerle anitpatía a alguien...I can't find the explanation

Question

I am taking a quiz and I keep getting it wrong. I get, "To Dislike"...I answer "no gustar" but I get it wrong because it is tenerle antipatía a alguien or vice versa. I am trying to find the difference. I know the "tener" verb is from Ser, Gustar is from estar? Is that right? But what is the difference in the way it is used? I am just not getting it.

Answer 1

Ahhhhhh, that would be my answer. Thanks so much!!!!

James Santiago said:

Ah, I think I may see what you are asking."To dislike" is not exactly the same as "not to like." While we could, grammatically, say "I dislike anchovies on my pizza," we would usually say "I don't like anchovies on my pizza," and a similar difference exists in Spanish, except that it is more exclusive. "Tenerle antipatía a alguien" is only used to refer to people. Not anchovies. It means that you dislike someone, that you don't get along with them, that they rub you the wrong way.Is that it?

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Answer 2

tener = to have (=to own)
ser = to be (only to classify)
dislike = no gustar
tenerle antipatía a alguien = to have "a dislike" about someone = to dislike

Answer 3

Ah, I think I may see what you are asking.

"To dislike" is not exactly the same as "not to like." While we could, grammatically, say "I dislike anchovies on my pizza," we would usually say "I don't like anchovies on my pizza," and a similar difference exists in Spanish, except that it is more exclusive. "Tenerle antipatía a alguien" is only used to refer to people. Not anchovies. It means that you dislike someone, that you don't get along with them, that they rub you the wrong way.

Is that it'

Answer 4

I know the "tener" verb is from Ser, Gustar is from estar'

Nope. All four are verbs, not related in any way to each other.

I don't really understand the rest of your question.