se lo dio a ellos

0
votes

" he gave it to them" is how this is translated in a lesson I'm on. I just don't understand the function of "se" here , is it an indirect object pronoun (le) I understand why se is used in this situation, kind of repeating the" a ellos" to them '

1937 views
updated OCT 6, 2008
posted by James-Schneider

2 Answers

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thanks much James

James Santiago said:

It is just that it sounds better to native speakers to say "se lo" than "les lo," but the "se" here is in fact "les." And while it sounds redundant to English speakers, the indirect object pronoun must be used here, even though "a ellos" is added for clarity or emphasis.

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updated OCT 6, 2008
posted by James-Schneider
0
votes

It is just that it sounds better to native speakers to say "se lo" than "les lo," but the "se" here is in fact "les." And while it sounds redundant to English speakers, the indirect object pronoun must be used here, even though "a ellos" is added for clarity or emphasis.

updated OCT 6, 2008
posted by 00bacfba