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difference between porque and por que?

difference between porque and por que?

2
votes

i should know this but always forget.
also...
ella tenia---|---|--does tenia need an accent''?
and.....
el llego---|---|does llego need an accent'''

35780 views
updated Dec 17, 2012
posted by Janet

25 Answers

1
vote

James Santiago said:

There is no word "por que." You can say "por lo que" and so forth, but not just "por que" (unless there is some obscure grammar construction I am unaware of).

Well.. there is, and it is not that obscure, since many verbs can require the preposition "por". Also, "por" can also used to in consecutive sentences instead of "para". In any case, "por que" cannot be a word, but two.

p. q. e .d. = por que en paz descanse.
Nadie apostaba por que el partido Liberal ganase las elecciones.
Se preocupó por que estudiaran.
Daría mi vida por que mis hijos estudiaran.

Also, it is not incorrect to say "por que" instead of "por lo que" in many cases, but it is used mainly in written Spanish, e.g. las penalidades por (las) que había pasado.

updated Dec 17, 2012
posted by lazarus1907
1
vote

Braidon said:

por que means "but" in engish.

That's not true.

updated Dec 17, 2012
posted by 00bacfba
1
vote

Braidon said:

porque means "because" in english and por que means "but" in engish . Hasta Luego!


"pero" (or less frequently and in some situations "sino") means "but". For "por que" see James' response.

updated Dec 17, 2012
posted by samdie
1
vote

porque means "because" in english and por que means "but" in engish . Hasta Luego!

updated Dec 17, 2012
posted by Braidon
1
vote

There is no word "por que." You can say "por lo que" and so forth, but not just "por que" (unless there is some obscure grammar construction I am unaware of).

porque = because
por qué = why

Tenía and llegó need accents. It is easy to remember if you understand the logic. The basic rule is that for most words (and the others have rules, too), the accent is on the penultimate syllable, and when there is an exception to this rule, you have to use an accent mark. You also have to use one to indicate that a diphthong is split. In the case of llegó, the accent is on the last syllable, so a mark is necessary. With tenia, the "ia" would form a diphthong, but writing tenía tells us that the I has to be pronounced separately.

updated Dec 17, 2012
posted by 00bacfba
0
votes

If Spanish is anything like Portuguese, there will be a difference... I was interested in learning the many "porques"... I'm intrigued because in Portuguese there are four types, all different, and I wanted to know whether a similar rule applies in Spanish. In PT the rules are. Por que - Because OR why as in "for that reason" or "for what reason?" Por quê - Same meaning but used when it comes before a punctuation mark of any kind Porque - Used to substitute pois (pues in Spanish), I believe it's something as using "for" in English as a conclusive conjunction Porquê - A noun meaning "reason", "motive"

Anything like it in Spanish?

updated Dec 17, 2012
posted by Hacarlos
0
votes

Natasha said:

samdie said:

Natasha said:

I wonder why this is not commonly used in Spanish classes here (U.S.)? It would certainly be useful, asa good deal of time in a beginner class is spent on dipthongs. We end up resorting to cumbersome workarounds like saying "If it is a not-a-dipthong then . . .

Well, we do have "dieresis".

Yes, but doesn't that refer to words like

vergüenza

where the dots indicate that the u is not silent?


Both to the typographic symbol and to the function that it signals (which may be indicated in other ways) e.g. "re-enter" and, more commonly now, just "reenter" (with no orthographic indication). Given the chaotic state of English spelling, I think the usual practice is to just say "This is the way it's written ... and this is the way it's pronounced..." (mostly without trying to give a "rule" to account for the possible/frequent discrepancies). It's also why English language dictionaries always indicate the pronunciation (and syllabification) and Spanish dictionaries (in my experience) usually don't.

updated Oct 9, 2008
posted by samdie
0
votes

samdie said:

Natasha said:

I wonder why this is not commonly used in Spanish classes here (U.S.)? It would certainly be useful, asa good deal of time in a beginner class is spent on dipthongs. We end up resorting to cumbersome workarounds like saying "If it is a not-a-dipthong then . . .

Well, we do have "dieresis".

Yes, but doesn't that refer to words like

vergüenza

where the dots indicate that the u is not silent'

updated Oct 9, 2008
posted by Natasha
0
votes

Natasha said:

I wonder why this is not commonly used in Spanish classes here (U.S.)? It would certainly be useful, asa good deal of time in a beginner class is spent on dipthongs. We end up resorting to cumbersome workarounds like saying "If it is a not-a-dipthong then . . .
Well, we do have "dieresis".

updated Oct 9, 2008
posted by samdie
0
votes

lazarus1907 said:

samdie said:

We'll probably have to wait for Lazarus to come along and offer an authoritative opinion on Spanish usage but I would comment that "hiatus" is not exactly in common usage in English, either. I know plenty of academics that use the word (and I always think that we should make an effort to preserve our Greek borrowings) but I can't recollect having heard the "man on the street" use the word.

In Spain every kid over 8 y.o. should at least recognize the word "hiato", or the education system has worsened more than I thought. It is only used to talk about accentuation, but we spend a long time in primary school learning it.

I wonder why this is not commonly used in Spanish classes here (U.S.)? It would certainly be useful, asa good deal of time in a beginner class is spent on dipthongs. We end up resorting to cumbersome workarounds like saying "If it is a not-a-dipthong then . . ."

updated Oct 9, 2008
posted by Natasha
0
votes

samdie said:

We'll probably have to wait for Lazarus to come along and offer an authoritative opinion on Spanish usage but I would comment that "hiatus" is not exactly in common usage in English, either. I know plenty of academics that use the word (and I always think that we should make an effort to preserve our Greek borrowings) but I can't recollect having heard the "man on the street" use the word.

In Spain every kid over 8 y.o. should at least recognize the word "hiato", or the education system has worsened more than I thought. It is only used to talk about accentuation, but we spend a long time in primary school learning it.

updated Oct 9, 2008
posted by lazarus1907
0
votes

samdie said:

Guillermo said:

What does hiato mean?

"pause"/"break"

In this context it refers to not pronouncing two adjacent vowels as a diphthong. There may not be an audible pause but the fact that each vowel retains its normal sound implies that they are not "blended together" into a single sound.

An example of which is río (river), which is two syllables, rather than the diphthong rio (laughed), which is one syllable.

updated Oct 8, 2008
posted by 00bacfba
0
votes

Guillermo said:

What does hiato mean?


"pause"/"break"
In this context it refers to not pronouncing two adjacent vowels as a diphthong. There may not be an audible pause but the fact that each vowel retains its normal sound implies that they are not "blended together" into a single sound.

updated Oct 8, 2008
posted by samdie
0
votes

What does hiato mean'

updated Oct 8, 2008
posted by guillermo4
0
votes

oh yeah i always get the meaning for por que mixed up but im glad now that i know what it means. Hasta luego mi amigos

updated Oct 8, 2008
posted by Braidon