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¡Alto! Stop!

¡Alto! Stop!

0
votes

Where does this word come from? I've never understood why you say:

Se detuvo a la puerta. / He stopped at the door.
Estaban parados en la calle. / They were stopped / standing in the street.
¡Dejen de hablar! / Stop talking!

--but if you want to just say "stop", it's "alto". (Maybe my brain is just hung up on the fact that alto means "high", but I thought I'd ask.)

9730 views
updated Oct 1, 2008
posted by Natasha

10 Answers

1
vote

That clears it up. Halt! ¡Alto!

Muchas gracias.

updated Apr 12, 2011
posted by Natasha
0
votes

Marco said:

Hi Natasha, when you said "Dejen de hablar - Stop talking!", is "dejen" the imperative verb form of "dejar" or subjunctive verb form? I think it should be the imperative verb form even though it's the same for both imperative and subjunctive forms for thrid person plural.

Thank you,

Marco

In my English-thinking mind, I was using the "imperative" for the "ustedes" form of "you." But that might be a bit simplistic . . .

updated Oct 1, 2008
posted by Natasha
0
votes

Marco said:

Hi Natasha, when you said "Dejen de hablar - Stop talking!", is "dejen" the imperative verb form of "dejar" or subjunctive verb form? I think it should be the imperative verb form even though it's the same for both imperative and subjunctive forms for thrid person plural.

You probably don't want to get into the specifics of the twisted grammatical nomenclature and taxonomy. Let's just say that the exclusively imperative forms only exists for "you", and for everything else, well... look why subjunctive can be used:

(Les ordeno que) dejen de hablar.
(Les pido que) dejen de hablar.
(Les ruego que) dejen de hablar.
(Les ordeno que) dejen de hablar.

updated Oct 1, 2008
posted by lazarus1907
0
votes

Hi Natasha, when you said "Dejen de hablar - Stop talking!", is "dejen" the imperative verb form of "dejar" or subjunctive verb form?
I think it should be the imperative verb form even though it's the same for both imperative and subjunctive forms for thrid person plural.

Thank you,

Marco

updated Oct 1, 2008
posted by Marco-T
0
votes

CalvoViejo said:

I don't know about the rest of Colombia, but here in Bogotá the signs are ignored anyway. It doesn't seem to matter whether they say pare or alto. Bienafortunadmente, no es así con los semáforos.

As far as I know, "bienafortunadamente" doesn't exist (at least not in Spain), since "afortunadamente" already means "having good fortune". You have "bienaventurado", though, and I guess you could make an adverb out of it.

updated Oct 1, 2008
posted by lazarus1907
0
votes

lazarus1907 said:

James is right: There is one "alto", from Latin "altus", meaning high, and another "alto", from German "halt" (borrowed in the 16th century), which is etymologically related to "hold", "accelerate" and "celebrity".I wish in Spain signs said "Pare", like in Colombia.


I don't know about the rest of Colombia, but here in Bogotá the signs are ignored anyway. It doesn't seem to matter whether they say pare or alto. Bienafortunadmente, no es así con los semáforos.

updated Oct 1, 2008
posted by CalvoViejo
0
votes

James is right: There is one "alto", from Latin "altus", meaning high, and another "alto", from German "halt" (borrowed in the 16th century), which is etymologically related to "hold", "accelerate" and "celebrity".

I wish in Spain signs said "Pare", like in Colombia.

updated Oct 1, 2008
posted by lazarus1907
0
votes

James Santiago said:

Doesn't it share its etymology with the word halt?


I've always thought so.
P.S. We (English speakers) got it from German (Middle High German).

updated Oct 1, 2008
posted by samdie
0
votes

What I find to be funny is that if you go to Mexico, their stop sign says "Alto" but in Colombia it says "Pare." I don't know why that makes me chuckle.

updated Oct 1, 2008
posted by LadyDi
0
votes

Doesn't it share its etymology with the word halt'

updated Oct 1, 2008
posted by 00bacfba