reflexive verb

0
votes

So,has it come to this(jajaja)the two letters s and e are hinting that the verb is reflexive'''''?
amarse
odiarse
quererse
correrse (get away from the wife,or husband,whatever the case is)
how else, can I recognize the reflexive verb'

3962 views
updated SEP 5, 2008
posted by 00769608

7 Answers

0
votes

Gus said:

I had no idea of the meaning of that word. For me it means to run away, or avoid. Live and learn is going to be my motto from now on; if I could find a better translation than Hay que vivir para aprender.

samdie said:

lazarus1907 said:

Finding "se" does not automatically mean that it is reflexive. It can be many things, like for example, "reciprocal" (i.e. to one another). Without a sentence, it is sometimes impossible to tell what is that "se" doing there.The only way is to learn how to use verbs correctly from the beginning, and learn their pronominal uses, when they have one.In Spain "correrse" means (among other things) to eyaculate, and not to run or anything like that. In this cases there is clearly nothing reflexive, but pronominal.

I was tempted to mention this but I was sure that Heidita would "get on my case".


Not even remotely a question of pronominal verbs but _another_ question/topic that I will _not_ initiate concerns an expression (that one of our maids was fond of saying when she enter the apartment where I stayed in Madrid) was "¡Huele a polvos!" which I was given to understand did _not_ mean "It smells dusty."
Once again, "no me atrevo".

updated SEP 5, 2008
posted by samdie
0
votes

I had no idea of the meaning of that word. For me it means to run away, or avoid. Live and learn is going to be my motto from now on; if I could find a better translation than Hay que vivir para aprender.

samdie said:

lazarus1907 said:

Finding "se" does not automatically mean that it is reflexive. It can be many things, like for example, "reciprocal" (i.e. to one another). Without a sentence, it is sometimes impossible to tell what is that "se" doing there.The only way is to learn how to use verbs correctly from the beginning, and learn their pronominal uses, when they have one.In Spain "correrse" means (among other things) to eyaculate, and not to run or anything like that. In this cases there is clearly nothing reflexive, but pronominal.

I was tempted to mention this but I was sure that Heidita would "get on my case".

>

updated SEP 5, 2008
posted by 00769608
0
votes

lazarus1907 said:

Finding "se" does not automatically mean that it is reflexive. It can be many things, like for example, "reciprocal" (i.e. to one another). Without a sentence, it is sometimes impossible to tell what is that "se" doing there.

The only way is to learn how to use verbs correctly from the beginning, and learn their pronominal uses, when they have one.

In Spain "correrse" means (among other things) to eyaculate, and not to run or anything like that. In this cases there is clearly nothing reflexive, but pronominal.


I was tempted to mention this but I was sure that Heidita would "get on my case".

updated SEP 5, 2008
posted by samdie
0
votes

Natasha said:

P.S. Lazarus, I think your Spanish keyboard is typing a y for a j . . . grin

Yes, this stupid keyboard... hehe. Of course, it has nothing to do with the fact that it is written as "eyacular" in Spanish.

updated SEP 5, 2008
posted by lazarus1907
0
votes

n.^ said:

Se is to denote that the action is done to 'oneself'. There are other pronouns (i think) like 'me' (yo) , 'os' (uds.) , and 'nos' (nosotros) which can replace 'se'.

The reflexive pronouns, which are used with reflexive or pronomial verbs, are as follows. (Please correct me if there's any mistake, this is from memory. I realize these will not always translate as "___|self", etc., but am including those words for clarity.)

me - first person singular (myself)
nos - first person plural (ourselves)
te - second person singular familiar (yourself)
os - second person plural familiar (yourselves)
se - third person singular or plural (itself, himself, herself, themselves), which would also include the Ud. / Uds. constructions (second person polite form)

se is used with the infinitive, as in Lazarus' example, correrse, which I think is what the original question was trying to ask about.

P.S. Lazarus, I think your Spanish keyboard is typing a y for a j . . . grin

updated SEP 5, 2008
posted by Natasha
0
votes

n.^ said:

Se is to denote that the action is done to 'oneself'. There are other pronouns (i think) like 'me' (yo) , 'os' (uds.) , and 'nos' (nosotros) which can replace 'se'.

This is not true more than half of the time in Spanish. This is what I was trying to explain earlier: "correrse" does not mean "to run to oneself", but to eyaculate! Please!

updated SEP 5, 2008
posted by lazarus1907
0
votes

Finding "se" does not automatically mean that it is reflexive. It can be many things, like for example, "reciprocal" (i.e. to one another). Without a sentence, it is sometimes impossible to tell what is that "se" doing there.

The only way is to learn how to use verbs correctly from the beginning, and learn their pronominal uses, when they have one.

In Spain "correrse" means (among other things) to eyaculate, and not to run or anything like that. In this cases there is clearly nothing reflexive, but pronominal.

updated SEP 5, 2008
posted by lazarus1907