Why does "r" sound like "d" ?'!''!''!'!'!''!'!''! please reply!

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Why does the spanish "r" sound like the english "d" when it is supposed to be trilled? one example of the "d" sound is the spanish word "quiero". Is this only when the "r" is close to the end of a word?
When is it supposed to be trilled? PLEASE ANSWER, ECSPECIALLY IF YOU HAVE A COLLEGE DEGREE IN SPANISH. I COULD USE A PROS ADVICE (WELL JUST ABOUT ANYONE REALLY). PLEASE REPLY!!!!!!!!!!!

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updated AGO 11, 2008
posted by Shelly

3 Answers

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Good morning everybody. Please make a search before posting!

[url=http://my.spanishdict.com/forum/topic/show'id=1710195%3ATopic%3A227608]http://my.spanishdict.com/forum/topic/show'id=1710195%3ATopic%3A227608[/url]

[url=http://my.spanishdict.com/forum/topic/show'id=1710195%3ATopic%3A244655]http://my.spanishdict.com/forum/topic/show'id=1710195%3ATopic%3A244655[/url]

Please read the professional answer by Lazarus, who is a specialist on these topics.

updated AGO 11, 2008
posted by 00494d19
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Lazarus I'm just reading your reply to Shelly about Spanish Rs.

Could you give me an example of 'trilled words' after 'L' or 'N'.

Gracias.
Annie.

updated AGO 11, 2008
posted by nonombre
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There are two R's in Spanish: a trill one and a tap one. The latter is also alveolar, like the English D, which is why they sound so close. The phonetic symbol for tt in butter is they same as r in Spanish for cara. Spanish D is not alveolar, but dental.

The R is trill only at the beginning of a word, after L or N, or when it os written as RR. The R in quiero is therefore not pronounced as trill.

updated AGO 10, 2008
posted by lazarus1907