agarrarle

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"Agarrarle de las piernas." (Grab her legs.)?

This was part of a down-loaded podcast.
Could someone explain to me the grammar behind "agarrarle"?
I know "agarrar" is the verb.

Gracias,
Annie

1491 views
updated AGO 9, 2008
posted by nonombre

7 Answers

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Yes exactly!

In the sentence "Agarrar a alguien de las piernas", the person you're holding is the direct object, and the direct object pronoun is "lo", so it is a "leísmo" (accepted, but not recommended), whether you like it or not. Suffice to say that it can be converted into a passive sentence, and the person of the active one becomes the subject of the passive: Fue agarrado de las piernas.

updated AGO 9, 2008
posted by lazarus1907
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Not exactly, it depends on the verb.

updated AGO 8, 2008
posted by Barrilito
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But remember that it is a typical leísmo from Spain.

updated AGO 8, 2008
posted by lazarus1907
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Actually, you better avoid the leísmo and use the proper direct object pronouns:

El profesor de gimnasia tiene que agarrarlo (a él) de las piernas
El profesor de gimnasia tiene que agarrarla (a ella) de las piernas

We Spanish people always get le and lo mixed up.

updated AGO 8, 2008
posted by lazarus1907
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De nada. Anyway you can also use "le" to say "to him" in this example:

El profesor de gimnasia tiene que agarrarle (a él) de las piernas para hacer (or "para poder hacer") abdominales.

updated AGO 7, 2008
posted by Barrilito
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Oh..okay...I think I understand...I'll have a wee think about it.

Gracias

updated AGO 7, 2008
posted by nonombre
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Here you have some correct expressions: le= a ella (to her)

El profesor de gimnasia tiene que agarrarle (a ella) las piernas para hacer abdominales / ...sujetarle (a ella) las piernas...

El profesor de gimnasia tiene que agarrarle de las piernas para hacer abdominales / ...sujetarle de las piernas para...

Best regards

updated AGO 7, 2008
posted by Barrilito