Most Spanish grammar is making sense to me now, but i'm sticking on a particular area which relates to the use of the auxilliary verb Haber, in two key uses:
1) As a non-indicative form of Hay
2) How it can be applied to the English equivalent of 'have been .....ing' something
1) I'm ok with most uses of 'there is / are' , such as hay, habia, habra, habria, haya. However, reading a text book recently relating to the past subjunctive has thrown me a little bit in my understanding of its use in those tenses.
There was a sentence which translated the phrase ' if there had been anyone there', as 'si hubiera habido alguien alli' .
What would be the correct grammar for 'there had been', without the subjunctive signal before it, and also the correct grammar for 'there will have been' ? Would it be 'habia habido' for 'there had been' , and 'habria habido' for 'there will have been'? Or am i coming at it from the wrong angle?
2) In English, when somebody asks us what we have been doing or when we offer information about our activities, we will say for example 'i have been playing football' or 'i have been watching television' , 'they have been drinking a lot' etc.
It can either mean something that a person or people have been doing right up until the moment of speaking, or something that you have been doing for a period of time, for example 'i have been learning spanish for 2 years' .
Would the translation for these come from the use of Haber + Estar + present participle , i.e. in Spanish can you have 2 conjugated auxiliary verbs followed by another conjugated verb in the present participle, or does one conjugation of Haber or Estar + present participle cover it?
Thanks in advance !