HomeQ&A"si dios quiera"

"si dios quiera"

0
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I just joined because I found an instance of "si dios quiera" on this thing.

How can an "if" clause, have a present subjunctive verb. Looks like an idiomatic expression that uses grammatically inconsistent forms, like "ain't done no traveling." I assume if so, it's regionally limited.

Right?

Steve

4692 views
updated JUN 21, 2008
posted by Steve-Tobias

1 Answer

1
vote

The present subjunctive in "si" clauses is limited to interrogative noun clauses, like "Me pregunto si Dios quiera", and its use is limited to only some regions, and it is not used frequently anyway, but in the rest of the Spanish speaking world its use is almost non-existent, and it sounds incorrect to people's ears. In sentences like "Si Dios quiera, lo haríamos", the subordinate is adverbial, and it is considered academically incorrect in any case.

In Spain, Spanish teachers and books just state that you cannot use the present subjunctive with "si". Some of my colleagues were surprised when I told them that you can actually use it under certain conditions.

Bottom line: avoid the present subjunctive, and you'll get it right anywhere in the world; use it, and you'll risk making wrong sentences, and being corrected even if you get it right.

updated FEB 24, 2010
posted by lazarus1907
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