Another clarification about Le usage
Yo no le temo a la muerte.
As far as I understand, Le functions as a Direct Object pronoun in some areas of Spain - him. and functions as Indirect Object pronoun - to Him, to Her, to It.
I guess in this sentence it functions as IO? I don't fear to it?
Thanks Alon
7 Answers
Lazarus, I just found this, so I don't agree with you.
verbos cuyo régimen ha sido reinterpretado: avisar, obedecer, temer y amenaza
Otro grupo de verbos cuyo régimen ha sido reinterpretado: avisar, obedecer, temer y amenazar. Todos estos grupos de verbos presentan una característica común que quizá pueda aclarar por qué se sustituyó el dativo primitivo por el acusativo: la transitividad preposicional. «Algunos como ayudar a/en exigen categóricamente la preposición; otros, como obedecer (a), temer (a), avisar (de), enseñar (a), alternan el régimen preposicional con el directo para expresar su objeto inanimad
A ver...¿Lo malinterpreto?
Original address of link:
http://hispanoteca.eu/Gramáticas/Gramática española/Leísmo falso - Verbos con alternancia en el régimen.htm
¡Yo no te temo, muerte!
DO
¿Ves? Yo no le temo a la muerte.
A la muerte, yo no le temo.
IO, I think, though it'd be a direct one in English
About América: San La Muerte.
"Le" here is being used as IO regardless of the country, and although it is also possible to refer to the death here using a DO, it is less frequent, especially in America.
Okay. I accept that temer requires an a when talking about an animated object, even death. Zombies come to mind. I believe we agree that temer requires a direct object. So why is the object pronoun le used with muerte, which is feminine? As far as I know, le is used as a DO pronoun only when the DO is masculine, and then only in some places. (i.e. Yo le/lo vi).
So to sum up, just to make sure I extracted the correct answer.... Temer demands the preposition "a" with animated objects, because of that le must be a DO..?
thanks you.
,I agree with you, Ale. It is a DO. Is it even possible in Spanish to have an IO without a DO? I don't think so, although I am not a native Spanish speaker.
Is "Temo la muerte." correct?
How about, "La temo"? "La" refers to "muerte". It sounds really strange, but I believe it to be grammatically correct.
I think so, if what you want to say is, I dont have a deathly fear of him. But, in my mind, le is a direct object and can only mean him. (It cant mean her). No le temo=I dont fear him. Deathly(a la muerte) is only a modifier.