Hasta que lo pierde/pierda
Al fin de la canción "El Perdón", Nicky Jam dice
Uno no sabe lo que tiene hasta que lo pierde
Pero he aprendido que se usa el subjuntivo para hablar de eventos en el futuro. En ese caso, ¿alguien sabe por qué Nicky no dijo "hasta que lo pierda"?
At the end of the song "El Perdón" Nicky Jam says
Uno no sabe lo que tiene hasta que lo pierde
But I've learned that you use the subjunctive to refer to events in the future. Does anyone know why Nicky didn't say "hasta que lo pierda"?
4 Answers
Para mí es porque estamos ante un hecho que se da siempre. Cada vez que uno lo pierde. No se trata de un futuro eventual. Es siempre.
Es como
Si Juan come, aumenta de peso.
If John eats, he puts on weight.
The first condition in English takes a present tense in the if clause and will in the result clause. Then it would be "If John eats, he will put on weight." But we can say "he puts on weight" meaning it's every time he eats
It's a generalization.
Hola Hacker. Good to hear from you. I waited an hour before answering, because mine is only a guess.
Perhaps this is a statement rather than a supposition about the future. So even though "You don't know what you have until you lose it" sounds like it is referring to a future hypothetical / conditional it is instead making a factual statement, either in the present or in general, and so doesn't need the subjunctive.
I have no idea if that is correct. I'm struggling with the subjunctive myself, so this could easily be way off the mark. Hopefully someone more advanced than me can enlighten us both 
I agree with polenta1. I think that the indicative is used because it is a statement that is always true.
I could be wrong though! Hope this helps!
Creo que debe ser "...hasta que lo pierde." (indicativo) Tiene un solo sujeto. Lo digo porque la cláusula puede substrituirse con ""Hasta perderlo".
El español es mi segunda lengua.
