Le vs Lo problem

Question

Hello i have a little problem. I have a sentence. The sentence is: Ella es tan famosa que cuando va por la calle, la gente LA (whom = DO) reconoce y LE (whom = ID?) pide autográfos. So my question is why is the second object used as an indirect object (to who for whom), if it's clearly direct object (what, whom) La gente pide (whom?) autografos? La gente LA (ella) pide autografos. Am i missing somehting? I always feel like i am missing something in spanish pronouns and objects grammar and dont know why so answer for this question may help me a little. Because of this i feel like i will never learn spanish and i will never be able to use it automatically without thinking about grammar just like enlgish.

Answer 1

Daniel, don't let it confuse you so much. "....la reconoce" is correct because the subject (la gente) recognizes the direct object (her). Direct object pronouns are expressed with la, lo, le,las, los, and les. Le and les can only be male and are optional (Lo and los can be used and often are). This regards direct objects.

"....y le pide autógrafos...." is correct also, but now there is an indirect object, "her". How did "her" change from a direct object to an indirect object? The answer is the verb. In the first part, it's a simple matter of a subject (they recognize) and and an object (her/la). The second part with "pedir" is different. It requires a subject (they, in this case), an object (direct object (an autograph), AND an indirect object (her). You must ask HER for SOMETHING. Indirect object pronouns are le, les, and se.

In English the direct object is often dropped in writing or conversation, although it is understood. To wit:

Robert: "Where are my keys? Do you have my keys?"

Dave: "No, I don't have them. I think I saw Mary pick them up when she went to the store."

Robert: "Ah, that's it! I will ask her."

For what is Robert going to ask Mary? He's going to ask her for the keys, but he didn't say that. Dave understood that Robert was talking about the keys.

In Spanish, Robert would say: — !Ah, eso! Las pediré a Mary. — !Ah, eso! Se las pediré. — !Ah, eso! Le pediré las llaves.

They are all correct, but the second is the better translation of the English in my example. "Se" is used instead of "le" because "le las" is never used. Neither are "Le la", "le los", "le lo", etc. Too many l's.

"Preguntar" and many other verbs are similar. "Preguntar" is ask somehing. "Pedir" is to ask for something.

I hope this helps.

Answer 2

So who is recognised? she (taking action of the verb) ... what is asked? autograph (taking action of the verb) Not translating it into my native language makes more sense. If its correct ... well thanks so much for help guys.

Yes! Perfect. - Shamelesspanish, Jun 24, 2017

Answer 3

This is one of those cases where translating the sentence can be misleading. Verbs of speech (where something is said or asked) are followed by a direct object (what is said or asked) and a "to clause" (to whom this has been said or asked). So, in the case of "le pide autógrafos" autógrafos is what is asked (direct object) and "le" is the indirect object, to her

Answer 4

Hello!

Here are links from 2010, 2011 & 2013 that explains your question.

• le/les vs. lo/los & la/las
• lo vs. la. vs. le?
• Le vs. Lo - pronouns

Hope this helps.

Regards!