Can comprar be used with two indirect objects at the same time?

Question

It saw, in a previous post that:

Se lo compré.

Could mean I bought it for you, or I bought it from you.

Can you reduce the following sentence, using only pronouns?

I bought a book from Juan for María.

I bought it from him for her.

My guess is that it would be better to say, in this situation:

Lo compré de él para ella.

Lo compré de Juan para María.

From Polenta's post the best way to say this in Spanish would be:

Se lo compré a él para ella.

Here the Se represents "him" with the le > se conversion. The "a él" is not grammatically necessary but clarifies what is going on. Ella is not technically an indirect object because it follows para instead of "a"

Answer 1

Le lo compré is wrong. It would be Se lo compré.

I bought it from him for her. Se lo compré ( a él) para ella.

I would add the " a él" between parenthesis because if not it would be grammatically correct but confusing.

The above example includes pronouns . Of course you could use names too.

I bought it from Juan for María. Se lo compré a Juan para María.

So...I guess the answer is you can't have two indirect objects at the same time. At least I was taught that only "a" can precede an indirect object...so in "para ella" "ella" is not technically an IO although the meaning is the same as if she were. Right? - DilKen, Apr 28, 2017

Good answer. - Daniela2041, Apr 28, 2017

I'm not definitely an expert in Spanish grammar. I know much more English grammar than Spanish grammar. Daniela knows much better. - polenta1, Apr 28, 2017

Answer 2

"Lo compré de él..." or "Lo compré de Juan" are not correct.

You're right, it should be: Se lo compré a él para ella".

Other examples:

• Se lo compré a Juan para (dárselo/regalárselo a ) María.

• Lo compré, de los que están en la sección izquierda, para María.

• Lo compré en la librería de Manuel para María.

• Lo compré con mi dinero, en la librería de Manuel, de la colección privada, por interés propio, para María.