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"Estaría" o "Estuviera"?

"Estaría" o "Estuviera"?

1
vote

I was watching a documentary and one person who was translating from English to Spanish translated "Where would you be if you were not here?" as "Donde estarias?" and the other person replied "Estuviera muerto." Why did one use the conditional and the other the imperfect subjuntive? Are both correct? This has confused me so much. Thank you in advance!

3204 views
updated Apr 2, 2017
edited by Kate_Porcelain
posted by Kate_Porcelain
"Spanish" "English" need to be capitalized. - rac1, Apr 1, 2017
right... - Kate_Porcelain, Apr 1, 2017
Tip: More people will vote for your posts if you select the applicable language proficiency levels on your profile page. - AnnRon, Apr 2, 2017

4 Answers

5
votes

Although according to strict grammar rules, the second verb, "estaría" muerto, is the preferred choice. However you will hear occasionally at least among some Spaniards and some Mexicans the use of subjunctive in both verbs.

Example. If I were a man I would go to war. Si fuera hombre, iría a la guerra.

However I have read and heard it said thus: "Si fuera hombre, fuera a la guerra."

I prefer the conditional in the second verb.

updated Apr 1, 2017
posted by Daniela2041
Thank you for this explanation, it confused me mostly because it was coming from 2 native speakers, but now it makes sense :) - Kate_Porcelain, Apr 1, 2017
4
votes

It's wrong. The answer is estaría muerto.

updated Apr 1, 2017
posted by Oshnaj
3
votes

I asked that very same question to my Cuban friend Alfonso just now on the phone: "¿En dónde estarías hoy en día, si no hubieras salido?" He answered, "No lo sé, Si estuviera muerto o preso." Alfonso is 63 years old and came to the USA in 1980 with about 125,000 other Cubans. He was a campesino, so not very well educated. He harvested tobacco and was jailed several times for not participating in government rallies. I would have said, "estaría". So, although it may not be perfectly correct, it is used.

updated Apr 2, 2017
posted by DonBigoteDeLaLancha
Very interesting! The person who used "estuviera" in the documentary I saw was an uneducated Mexican prisoner, so education/social class might play a role in this. - Kate_Porcelain, Apr 1, 2017
That is indeed a coincidence, but it does make sense. We don't all talk the same way: "could of/could have", "Watcha doin/What are you doing?", "Didja eat/Did you eat", ad naseum. - DonBigoteDeLaLancha, Apr 2, 2017
1
vote

Perhaps the speaker was thinking "Es possible que. . . ." even though he didn't say it aloud, and used the subjunctive that would be correct after the impersonal construction.

updated Apr 2, 2017
posted by AnnRon
Good point! However, that doesn't change what he actually said. - DonBigoteDeLaLancha, Apr 2, 2017