Questions about absence of le

Question

I was reading a book in Spanish, and I noticed the following sentence.

"Corran"- gritó a las diosas.

Here, why does it not say "les gritó a las diosas" when the verb should be gritarle? Is there a gramatical explanation here?

Answer 1

The verb here is simply gritar.

If the indirect object follows the verb, notation of the indirect object pronoun is not necessary - although we normally do so because of habit and after hearing it so much this way it becomes common and "sounds right": gritó a las diosas / les gritó (a las diosas). In the second variant les is mandatory and a las diosas is for clarification and is not mandatory.

If the indirect object appears before the verb, then the indirect object pronoun is mandatory, ie: A las diosas les gritó.

The RAE rule states that the pronoun before the verb is also mandatory if the indirect object is only a personal pronoun even if it occurs after the verb. a él, a ella, a nosotros, etc. - DilKen, Mar 27, 2017

Answer 2

Les gritó a las diosas Is ok. It sounds to me that gritó a las diosas could be part of a poem. You could eventually omit les in everyday life but probably not most of the times.