"¿Por qué perdéis lo vuestro?"
1
vote
Can someone explain why "lo vuestro" is informal plural in this statement: "¿Por qué perdéis lo vuestro?"
The quiz question was ¿Por qué perdéis (what is yours?)
What is the difference between 2nd person plural (vosotros) and 2nd person plural (ustedes?)
656 views
updated Feb 7, 2017
edited by mellamoKarl
posted by mellamoKarl
Welcome to SpanishDict. - rac1, Feb 7, 2017
1 Answer
5
votes
"Vuestro" is the second person plural / The second singular would be "tuyo".
First person singular/plural: mío/nuestro Third person singular/plural: suyo/suyos.
Therefore, "Lo vuestro" is "what is yours". "Lo" is an undefined "it". Ah, well, it's understood from the context of the conversation. I think "vuestro" in older English was "Thine".
Since "Perdéis" was used, you must say "vuestro".
updated Feb 7, 2017
posted by DonBigoteDeLaLancha
Thanks. I think I am figuring it out. It's just a matter of knowing my conjugation :-) - mellamoKarl, Feb 7, 2017
