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Indirect pronoun shortcut

Indirect pronoun shortcut

3
votes

Someone told me I could drop the indirect pronoun if the indirect object noun appears after the verb. However, I have never heard about this and I can't seem to find any links online.

Here are two examples:

Puedes hacer(le) una llamada a la compañía desde las cinco hasta las diez.

Puedes hacer(le) una llamada al abogado desde las cinco hasta las diez.

The person I was talking to told me I could drop the "Le" because I already had "al abogado/ a la compañía" after the verb. Is this true? I learnt that I could drop "a mi madre/a la compañía", but not the "le". I would like another opinion please. Thank you so much!

And no offense to the person who told me this. It's not that I don't believe this, it's just that I'm curious for more information on how to use this shortcut. Does it work when I have one verb? Haz(le) una llamada a la compañía. (Le) Pedimos dinero a mi madre.

990 views
updated Jan 30, 2017
posted by Ramonaspiker

4 Answers

4
votes

The rules as I understand them:

If a noun object is in the sentence, and precedes the verb, and object pronoun is needed. This is regardless of whether it is the direct object or the indirect object.

If a noun object is in the sentence and follows the verb, the object is optional. If it is an indirect object, the pronoun is usually included. If it is a direct object, it is usually omitted.

Thus what they told you is true. But, personally, I prefer to speak the way natives usually do as much as possible, so they do not have to add strange usages to my odd accent.

I cannot find a lesson immediately that says exactly what I am saying- but here are a couple that hint at it:

http://spanish.about.com/od/pronouns/a/redundant-pronouns.htm

http://www.elearnspanishlanguage.com/grammar/pronouns/redundantobjectpronouns.html

This last one points out "usually optional" - I think in a few verbs like gustar it is so strange not to use it that you pretty much have to, even if it is after the verb.

updated Jan 29, 2017
edited by bosquederoble
posted by bosquederoble
Is the company or lawyer not the indirect object? I thought they were because they are receiving the call - Ramonaspiker, Jan 29, 2017
2
votes

I messed up. I put up a statement disagreeing in part with what Bosque had said. Then I reread the post and discovered I was saying the same thing.

However in MOST cases, we don"t start with the direct object as in the model sentence about the "piscina sucia." In most cases, where you start with the subject, the redundancy is not needed as with indirect object pronouns.

updated Jan 29, 2017
edited by Daniela2041
posted by Daniela2041
2
votes

If a noun object is in the sentence and precedes the verb, an object pronoun is needed. This is regardless of whether it is an indirect object or a direct object.

If a noun object is in the sentence and follows the verb, an object pronoun is optional. If it is an indirect object, the pronoun is usually included. If it is a direct object, it is usually omitted.

Thanks Bosque. This is the simplest and most concise explanation on this matter I have ever read, and with Daniela's approval I'm willing to take it as gospel. (Please note I have edited a couple of words in your rules but did not want to overstep the mark and edit your post directly).

updated Jan 29, 2017
posted by jellonz
Thank you for cleaning up my English. I don't why I have developed a propensity for mixing up "and" and "an" lately. :) - bosquederoble, Jan 25, 2017
It's easily done Bosque. Thanks again for all the answers you provide. - jellonz, Jan 25, 2017
Thanks for the help jellonz! - Ramonaspiker, Jan 29, 2017
2
votes

Your friend is right!

Puedes llamar a la compañía.

Puedes llamar al abogado.

updated Jan 29, 2017
posted by LuisCache
Thanks Luis! I thought I needed the "le" because the company or the lawyer is the indirect noun since they are Receiving - Ramonaspiker, Jan 29, 2017