Grammar help??

Question

Hi, I was listening to Enrique Iglesias's Duele El Corazon and being in spanish 2, I couldn't understand most of it, and obviously had a question.

Basically in the lyrics there is a part that goes like this: "Si te vas, yo tambien me voy Si me das, yo tambien te doy"

On the second line I assume that "si" is "if" and "das" being the you form, "you give", and the "me" is the object, thus making it "If you give to me" However, on the first line, if I were to assume the same, why is it written as "si te vas"? Is it literally translated to "If you go to you"? According to a translation it means "if you go". I'm confused. Can someone explain to me how this works? Thanks.

Welcome to SpanishDict. - rac1, Jan 4, 2017

Answer 1

When we use a personal pronoun with ir, it means to leave rather than to go. This is not a direct or indirect object.

Answer 2

To put all together:

If you leave, I will also leave, if you give to me (your love--inferred) I'll give to you my love.

I had to look up the lyrics to see that you did not include "my love" without which the "me das-te doy" makes no sense.

Just to throw it out there - couldn't it mean giving something in general? To me, the "mi amor" part seemed more like a direct address. - KRavishankar19, Jan 4, 2017

No, señor. Without "mi amor" as the direct object, the "me das--te doy" business makes no sense at all. - Daniela2041, Jan 4, 2017

Answer 3

ir by itself means to go. irse (reflexive form) tends to mean, to leave. e.g, Ya me voy. I'm leaving.