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Indirect/Direct object with "Esperar"?

Indirect/Direct object with "Esperar"?

2
votes

In the SD dictionaries there are two example sentences for "Esperar" that use different object pronouns despite both seeming to have the same structure:

La esperó media hora - He waited half an hour for her.

Le esperan dificultades - Many difficulties await him.

If you put these examples in the same tense and simplify them you can get:

La espera - He awaits her

Le esperan - They await him

So, why a DO pronoun for one and an IO pronoun for the other?

1852 views
updated Dec 7, 2016
posted by jellonz

5 Answers

4
votes

Ah, ok Bosque. So using your example and trying to find a logical IO in English, effectively: "A nasty surprise awaited [to happen TO] her"? - jellonz

In your examples esperar is transitive, so they have a direct object.

La espera - He awaits her

This is correct.

Le esperan - They await him

This is incorrect because "the difficulties" is the subject and "him" is the direct object, so it must be Lo esperan.

updated Dec 6, 2016
posted by 005faa61
The examples were taken directly from the SD dictionary Julian :( - jellonz, Dec 5, 2016
As was the one I cited proving it is not leísmo, which would allow le esperan regardless of what the subject is if a male were the direct object. - bosquederoble, Dec 5, 2016
It is allowed even though it is a deviation from the correct form, like in English "was" is allowed as a subjunctive "were", ie: "If I was lucky ...." in place of correct usage "If I were lucky ..." A ver si me explico - 005faa61, Dec 5, 2016
Sorry Julian. Missed this comment before I posted. So the IO pronoun variation is not the norm, and either form would be acceptable? - jellonz, Dec 5, 2016
4
votes

Thanks Julian. But isn't Bosque and his reference saying this is not a case of leismo but instead a grammatical rule regarding a particular use of esperar? I'm referring specifically to the quoted rule #3. - jellonz

Jellonz, I refer to your example "Le esperan - They await him". I understand this to be that difficulties await the guy at particular place in time or place, so in this case we use transitive - from the RAE: tr. Permanecer en sitio adonde se cree que ha de ir alguien o en donde se presume que ha de ocurrir algo.

However, if you mean these difficulties await him until he starts to do something, then we use intransitive - from the RAE: intr. No comenzar a actuar hasta que suceda algo. Esperó A que sonase la hora para hablar.

So the interpretation can be made two different ways with your example because it is a little bit poetic. This is to say that Bosquederoble and I do not disagree in this case.

updated Dec 6, 2016
edited by 005faa61
posted by 005faa61
Wow. The intricacies of Spanish. Thanks for taking the time to explain Julian. I think this is way above me and I'll just treat "esperar" as transitive :) - jellonz, Dec 6, 2016
3
votes

Sorry Julian. Missed this comment before I posted. So the IO pronoun variation is not the norm, and either form would be acceptable? - jellonz

Por la razón siguiente que aparece en Wikipedia digo que hay manera correcta e incorrecta aunque el uso de leísmo ya viene siendo sólo aceptable:

El leísmo es un rasgo característico de los dialectos del centro de la península Ibérica, a los que la Real Academia Española considera actualmente vulgares. El dictamen académico se ha moderado recientemente, y se considera aceptable la forma leísta exclusivamente cuando el complemento directo de la acción es una persona de sexo masculino. Por tanto, así le vi [a Juan] se tolera, mientras que *le vi [a Inés] o *le vi [al buque] no. En el caso de ser el complemento directo masculino y plural, referido a personas, la Academia hace notar que aunque el uso de les "no carece de ejemplos literarios", es "desaconsejable en el habla culta"; por tanto, decir *les vi llegar (a ellos) es desaconsejable y, por supuesto, *les vi llegar (a los buques) ya es incorrecto sin paliativos.

updated Dec 6, 2016
posted by 005faa61
Thanks Julian. But isn't Bosque and his reference saying this is not a case of leismo but instead a grammatical rule regarding a particular use of esperar? I'm referring specifically to the quoted rule #3. - jellonz, Dec 6, 2016
Jullian is a native Spanish speaker. - rac1, Dec 6, 2016
2
votes

Although your examples leave the possibility of leismo, this one does not:

http://www.spanishdict.com/translate/await

a nasty surprise awaited her le esperaba una desagradable sorpresa

Your answer is number 3. here:

http://lema.rae.es/dpd/srv/search?key=esperar

esperar. 1 Con el sentido de ‘permanecer en un sitio hasta que [alguien o algo] llegue o hasta que [algo] suceda’, es transitivo en el español culto general: «Mi abuelo LO esperaba en la estación de Córdoba» (Fuentes Esto [Méx. 2002]); «Desapareció mientras esperábamos el tren» (Kociancich Maravilla [Arg. 1982]). No obstante, en gran parte de América, especialmente en el área caribeña, no es infrecuente su uso como intransitivo, seguido de un complemento con por, sin que exista matiz causal que lo justifique: «Papá nos llevó a la estación. Nueve hijos esperábamos POR ti» (Parrado Bembeta [Cuba 1984]); «Dumbo velaba el caldo y esperaba POR el primer hervor» (Montero Tú [Cuba 1995]). Aunque cuenta con algún antecedente clásico, en muchos casos puede deberse hoy al influjo del inglés to wait for. Se recomienda la construcción transitiva (esperar [algo o a alguien]), que es la mayoritaria en el uso culto.

2 Cuando significa ‘tener esperanza [en que algo suceda] o creer que sucederá’, es >transitivo y va seguido de un infinitivo o de una oración introducida por que: «Espero llegar a vieja sin arrugas» (Allende Eva [Chile 1987]); «Espero que todo te vaya bien»(Gala Invitados [Esp. 2002]). Si lo que significa es ‘dar tiempo a que algo suceda antes de hacer otra cosa’, es intransitivo y en ese caso el infinitivo o la oración introducida por que van precedidos de la preposición a: «Espera A conocerla, te digo, antes de ponerte celosa» (Donoso Elefantes [Chile 1995]); «Los oficinistas esperaban A que la lluvia terminara» (Ponte Contrabando [Cuba 2002]).

3 Cuando significa, dicho de una cosa, ‘estarle reservada a alguien o haberle de ocurrir en el futuro’, es intransitivo; el complemento de persona es indirecto: «En esa situación tan extraña LE esperan, al grumete, adversidades suplementarias» (Saer Entenado [Arg. 1988]).

4 Hoy es ya raro su uso intransitivo con un complemento introducido por en y el sentido de ‘tener esperanza en la ayuda de alguien o en algo’: «Adquirió mucho mérito esperando EN Dios contra toda esperanza humana» (GaBadell Funeral [Esp. 1975]).

updated Dec 5, 2016
edited by bosquederoble
posted by bosquederoble
Ah, ok Bosque. So using your example and trying to find a logical IO in English, effectively: "A nasty surprise awaited [to happen TO] her"? - jellonz, Dec 4, 2016
I wouldn't necessarily try to equate them directly, look at the convolutions we do with gustar. But what about a nasty surprise was waiting for her. :) - bosquederoble, Dec 4, 2016
Note in English I would almost always say I waited for her, not I awaited her, and that is the use in Spanish that takes the direct object - bosquederoble, Dec 5, 2016
I mean I awaited her arrival, I waited for her to arrive. :) - bosquederoble, Dec 5, 2016
Gotcha. I was trying to establish a difference between "A nasty surprise waited for her" and "I waited for her" by having the nasty surprise be something that happens *to* her. - jellonz, Dec 5, 2016
1
vote

Bumping this to get a third opinion as the first two answers differ.

Bosque has the support of textual evidence, which states (if my interpretation is correct) that if the thing doing the awaiting is reserved for, or is going to occur to, the object of the sentence, then this object becomes indirect.

But Julian is a native speaker and he says that even in the above examples where this is the case the relationship should remain simply subject verb direct object.

So who is right, or are they both? Any further input welcome.

updated Dec 7, 2016
posted by jellonz
As far as leísmo goes, I've only heard Spaniards use it. Regardless, people learning Spanish should stick to accepted grammar rules vs. imitating natives on everything. Rules don't apply to natives the way it does to those learning the language. - codyandrews1993, Dec 6, 2016
Therefore, the direct object pronoun would be better. The indirect object pronoun would change the meaning of the sentence (from a "Grammar-Nazi" point of view). - codyandrews1993, Dec 6, 2016
Thanks Cody. - jellonz, Dec 7, 2016