what article when introducing a part of something already introduced

Question

Hello, I think I have the hardest time learning about articles in any language, maybe because in my native language there are none

But here is my question:

Let's suppose I am telling a story, I was sitting in my chair and some guy approached me. I am describing him, his appereance to someone:

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"Vi un señor desconocido a mí vestido en ??? camisa blanca y tenido ??? barba pelirroja corta(...)"

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I gathered some informations:

• I could use indefinite articles because I am talking about his features for the first time
• I could use definite articles, because I already introduced him, and the following things are his features
• I could use definite articles because it would be instead of possesives (that, as I understand one doesn't use in Spanish when it's obvious who's the owner) - he owns things that he wears - but it seems weird "A guy was dressed in his shirt and had his beard" ... so it seems that indefinites will be more suitable, but again
• I read somewhere on the internet, that in Spanish, when there is supposed to be indefinite article, but it is obvious that these are things that we normally encounter one at a time (and people wear one beard and one shirt) - the article is spurious

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So...am I supposed to use definite art, indefinite art or... none?

I do not know what I should take into account as a rule and if the last one is even true.

and an additional question: Is it spurious to say "desconocido a mí, if I already used the indefinite article "un" ?

Can someone help ?

Answer 1

Articles match their corresponding nouns according to gender and plurality - nothing more.

Your example sentence has been made difficult by translating word for word from English, when some of the articles of the English are not necessary in Spanish, so a more natural way is: Vi a un señor desconocido (a mí) vestido de camisa blanca y con barba pelirroja corta.

Thank You for the answer, ahhh, so after "de" and "con" I don't ever use any articles?? - Leflur-Fluflur, Nov 21, 2016

Of course you do, but in this sentence structure they are not necessary. "Vi pasar una mujer" doesn´t use personal "A" because this is an unknown woman and so she is not personal - 005faa61, Nov 22, 2016

hmmm, but "Vi a un señor" seems the same to me. I mean, he is unknown as well? anyway thank You ;) - Leflur-Fluflur, Nov 22, 2016

Answer 2

I see that you know how to use articles in English. That makes my answering a little easier.

Definite articles are used to refer to something which is known to both speakers.

Do you have the book?---(the one you bought) ¿Tienes el libro?

Do you have the keys (to the car)

Spanish uses the definite article in the same way that an English speaker would. However Spanish has four of them "el, la, los, las" Masculine/feminine singular, and masculine and feminine plural.

The indefinite article in Englsh are "a/an" singular, "some" plural.

a/an really means "one" so in Spanish "un" and "una" are used to say "un libro" --a book. "una" camisa, ---a shirt.

Spanish also uses the definite article in "general" expressions, like "French people drink wine, and Mexicans prefer beer. "Los franceses toman vino, y los mexicanos prefieren cerveza." This is something that does not happen in English.

So to say something like "He was wearing a yellow shirt" would be. Llevaba una camisa verde.

In your sentence you have forgotten about the Spanish personal "a" which is required when a person is the direct object of the verb.

"Vi a un señor, a quien no conocía, que llevaba una camisa blanca, y que tenía una corta barba pelirroja.

I saw a gentleman who was wearing a white shirt, and had a short red beard.

Great answer, as always! :) - rac1, Nov 21, 2016

Thank You so much ! ;) Can I have just one little question about this direct object's "a"? there is a Shakira's song (;)) and in the lyrics, there is "ayer vi pasar una mujer debajo de su camello". Why isn't it "vi pasar a una mujer" then? ;) - Leflur-Fluflur, Nov 21, 2016