The difference between 'estas' and ' tienes'

Question

Hi, I've decided to learn a new language and chose Spanish. I've just started and am confused by, when to use ' estas' as opposed to 'tienes'. They seem to be interchangeable! I've looked for differences but I can't tell when to use one over the other. What am I missing here?

Welcome to spanishdict. We ask that all new members complete their profiles with their native language, and what level of Spanish you feel you are, like, beginner, intermediate, etc. as well as gender. - ray76, Nov 9, 2016

You will get some votes if you fill out your profile. - Daniela2041, Nov 9, 2016

Answer 1

Welcome to the forum. I assume you are still a beginner in Spanish and fluent or advanced in English? Can you add your language levels to your profile? If you decide to ask or answer questions this information is helpful.

Is Spanish the first 'foreign' language you have tried learning? Are you self studying or do you go to a class?

It is a good idea to work out how to pronounce Spanish words. Try the BBC programme Mi Vida Loca or try some podcasts starting with beginner eg Notes in Spanish. Estás is the 2nd person singular of estar. Estar means to be. Spanish also uses Ser to mean to be. You will take time to learn all the differences, but ser is used more often than estar.

Tener means to have. There is also a verb haber meaning to have, but that is mainly used to form some verb tenses and usefully in the third person singular [hay] to mean there is or there are

Here is a picture showing the main uses of tener. Some of the phrases are translated into English using to be - eg I am 10 years old - Spanish I 'have' 10 years I am thirsty - Spanish I have thirst.

Now if you go to the front page of this site and put tener or estar in the translate box it will take you to a page with lots of information

Buena suerte

It looks like no one is interested in this one. I voted for you anyhow. ♥ - Daniela2041, Nov 9, 2016

Thanks for taking the time to help me. I tried to give you a vote but I don't have enough reputation. Sorry - Iain616, Nov 13, 2016

Answer 2

In case you don't "get" the above explanation, it's just that Spanish, French, and Italian, use the verb "to have" instead of "to be" in certain cases.

Explaining Mardle's graphic.

Instead of saying "I am hungry" we say "I have hunger." Tengo hambre

To say "I am 30 years old" we say "I have thirty years. Tengo treinta años

To say that Pedro is hot." (from the weather) we say "Pedro has heat" Pedro tiene calor

Maite is thirsty becomes, "Maite has thrist" Maite tiene sed

Carlos is right. "Carlos has reason" Carlos tiene razón

Carlos is wrong. "Carlos no has reason" Carlos no tiene razón.

However the verbs for to be "Ser and Estar" are also in use. See my article on this link.

It's a good link. You will learn a lot from it.

Ser and Estar

Hi Daniela. I tried to give you a vote also but once again, no reputation. Good article by the way. It was very helpful. Thank you. - Iain616, Nov 13, 2016