How to write fractions in recipes
In recipes, why are ingredients sometimes listed as "1/2 taza" and sometimes as "1/2 de taza"? Does it matter which fraction it is, because I seem to see the “de” more often with quarter cups/teaspoons/etc. Sometimes the same recipe will have the "de" after the fraction for some fractions and not others. Does it matter what kind of ingredient it's referring to? Thanks!
5 Answers
Hello, M_Plata.
Would you be so kind as to complete your profile? Knowing your Spanish and English proficiency (and sometimes your gender and location) can help people answer your questions.
I don't know that I've ever seen anything like 1/2 de taza in a recipe. Your question made me poke around a bit, and I still haven't seen it.
In English we can say, sensibly,
- 1/2 of a cup of milk
- half a cup of milk
- 1/2 cup milk
but in written recipes we always, or nearly always, say the last of the three. A recipe that included 1/2 of a cup of milk would look weird.
Similarly, I would guess that anywhere you've seen 1/2 de taza de leche, it's a quirk of that particular writer.
I know that's not a definitive answer. Sorry!
Una taza de harina
Media taza de crema
Una cucharadita de sal
Media cucharadita de azúcar
Una pizca de pimienta
Siempre se usa la preposición "de" sin importar los ingredientes.
When 1/2 taza is written, it means the ingredient goes first: azúzar - 1/2 taza.
Write 1/2 taza de [ingredient] to say: 1/2 taza de azúcar.
Although, there's no rule for this, it depends on the person who wrote the recipe. Both ways work.
I can't answer your question Plata, but I do understand what you are asking.
I thought maybe a bit of googling could provide some criteria for why sometimes "1/2 de taza" and sometimes just "1/2 taza" etc., but in all the recipes I read there didn't seem to be any pattern. Ingredients and quantity did not seem to make any difference, and some recipes even had both forms in them.
The only thing I can say for sure is the form sin "de" is much more common, over 10 times in fact, but the sheer volume of the form including "de" would suggest it is still used and not just an error.
Hopefully one of the native speakers above will reread your question and see what it is you are actually asking.
EDIT: Just read JT's answer and that makes sense. Perhaps the Spanish "1/2 de taza" is the equivalent of our English "Half of a cup" where the indefinite article is present in English but not needed in Spanish as is often the case.
"de" is always used, but when the unity is complete like: "un limon" "una papaya" " una taza", it's not used.
And when it's a fraction, it's used "de" ( of ) "de limon, de papaya" like the example of LuisCache.
The word "of" in Spanish is "de" and the people are used to saying the ingredient. And when we know the ingredient is not necessary to say "de", just say "una taza"
Example: Una taza de azúcar. Azúcar, una taza.
