subjunctive tenses after "ojalá" when subject of both clauses the same

Question

I just studied an entire lesson on the use of the subjunctive after "ojalá." But in every example I studied the subjects of the main & subordinate clauses were different.

In the present and present perfect moods, the translation is "I hope that." 1) Ojalá que los chicos lluegen pronto = I hope that the boys arrive soon. 2) Ojalá que la abuela haya hecho su famoso torta de chocolate = I hope that Grandmother has made her famous chocolate cake.

No example was given for " I hope that I" ( that is, where subjects in both clauses are the same). So what if I wanted to say something like "I hope that I fall asleep by 10:00pm"? Or "I hope that I can fall asleep by 10:00pm." ? Would it be Ojalá que me duerma para las 10:00 or Ojalá que me pueda dormir para las 10:00? Or is it necessary to use the infinitive? Ojalá dormir(me?) o Ojalá poder dormir(me?) para las 10:00?

I'll stop here, but I have the same basic question with respect to "ojalá" followed by the 2 past subjunctive moods: imperfect subjunctive (e.g., él hablara) & pluperfect subjunctive (él hubiera hablado). Well, I'll just go ahead and throw it out there: If "Ojalá que tú quedaras" means I wish you were staying, how would one say I wish I were staying? And if "Ojalá que me lo hubieras dicho" means I wish you had told me, how would one say I wish I had told you?

Answer 1

"Ojalá que (and some speakers omit "que.") is Always followed by the subjunctive.

Your two sentences, "I wish I were staying." and "wish I had told you." would go like this.

"I wish I were staying" has t be rephrased to "I wish I could stay" Ojalá que pudiera quedarme."

I wish I had told you. "Ojala que te lo hubiera dicho." (In Spanish we "throw" the "lo" in there. No sé por qué.)

We're really not breaking any rules here, since we DO have a change of subject when you consider that "ojalá" is a corruption of an Arabic phrase, "May Allah grant" or "Would that Allah had granted." So our first subject is "Allah" the the second subject is "yo"

Fácil, ¿no? OK--so it's "no" (Darn!)

Actually, I leave out "lo" when I say "ojalá te hubiese/hubiera dicho." It's probably a regional thing. - Oshnaj, Sep 7, 2016

While I understand that there is technically change of subject (God and I), can "Ojalá (que)" followed by the first person singular ("I") be translated somehow using the infinitive? Ojalá habertelo dicho for I wish I had told you, for example? - malbecblend, Sep 7, 2016

No exceptions to the "ojalá" rule. - Daniela2041, Sep 7, 2016

Answer 2

Idiomatically,

1. I wish... = ojalá que ...
2. I hope... = espero que ...

These always trigger the subjunctive, and the nuances in Spanish mean the same.

• Ojalá que hable. (= focusing on a future situation.)
• Ojalá que hablara/hablase. (= focusing on a present situation.)
• Ojalá que hubiese/hubiera hablado. (= focusing on a past situation.)

Although, we don't use espero que with a past form of the subjunctive, because espero is a present form and would contradict the given past form of the subjunctive.

• Espero que hubiese/hubiera hablado.

as to the first paragraph of your answer, how then would one say "I wish I could fall asleep" and "I hope I can fall asleep"? - malbecblend, Sep 7, 2016

using ojalá - malbecblend, Sep 7, 2016