"no la cambies" why subjunctive
The context is a guy watching sports on TV at a bar and the bartendar is going to switch channel. The guy says: "Por favor no la cambies. Estoy alentando a mi equipo."
"cambies" is the subjunctive form of "cambiar". Why is subjunctive used it? I thought the imperative should have been used because it is an order for the bartendar?
Thank you.
3 Answers
I am not sure what stage your Spanish has reached as intermediate covers a wide reach.
I learnt imperative forms just before I started learning the subjunctive mood. Effectively commands are the second part of a sentence starting I want you to - quiero que which would then use the subjunctive.
However, the tu forms ending in s don't sound right as orders so in Spanish for a tu form in the affirmative you use in most cases the third person present of the verb. But where it is a negative command you use the subjunctive form as in your sentence.
Almost all formal commands with Usted and Ustedes take their forms from the subjunctive.
The Informal forms "tú" and "vosotros" are different. The informal command is the same as the the formal singular indicative.
"You speak" (Usted habla) is the indicative form for usted. The familiar imperative Speak (tú)! is also "habla" but when giving the negative command you go to the subjunctive form. "No hables!"
Affirmative "tú" command for change it "cámbialo" (canal is masculine)
Negative command is, "No lo cambies." (I'm not sure why your quote uses the feminine "la".)
Note: There are many verbs such as "tener", "decir", "poner", etc. that have an irregular form in the affirmative imperative. "ten" "di" "pon" but use the subjunctive in the negative imperative. "No tengas" "No digas" "No pongas" There are about 10 more like this.
Sorry, please delete this post.