Home
Q&A
Are different Spanish adverb types normally mixed?

Are different Spanish adverb types normally mixed?

4
votes

What I know:

Some Spanish adverbs can have up to three 'types": one, normally just the masculine form of the adjective, eg "rápido"; the second the feminine form of the adjective plus the -mente suffix, eg "rápidamente"; and the third "con + noun", eg "con cuidado" (I wasn't sure if "con rapidez" was a valid example smile).

When two -mente adverbs follow a verb the first adverb loses the -mente suffix. eg "Ella respiraba lenta y profundamente."

What I don't know:

When two adverbs follow a verb, can they be of mixed type, and if so is it commonly done?

And, if the adverbs can be of mixed type, and the first is a -mente form, does it still lose that suffix?

Below are some examples for the above. I've arranged them in what I'm guessing is best to worst order but would appreciate corrections/comments.

  1. Ella habla lenta y claramente

  2. Ella habla lento y claro

  3. Ella habla lento y con claridad

  4. Ella habla lenta y con claridad

  5. Ella habla lenta y claro

  6. Ella habla lento y claramente

  7. Ella habla lentamente y con claridad

  8. Ella habla lentamente y claro

1197 views
updated Jun 16, 2016
edited by jellonz
posted by jellonz
It's a good question, but I don't have any idea how this is done. I almost think we'll need a native speaker for this. - Jubilado, Jun 15, 2016
Good questions mate , thanks. - ray76, Jun 15, 2016

2 Answers

7
votes

I researched my textbooks for information on this and couldn't find any rules. All I can go by is what sounds right to me after speaking Spanish all my life.

I like your sentences 1,2,3. #'s 4,5,6 do not sound correct. #7 sounds OK but 8 doesn't.

Maybe someone who knows their way around the RAE can give a more definitive answer with some authority.

updated Jun 16, 2016
posted by Daniela2041
If #8 were "Habla clara y lentamente." would that sound correct? - Jubilado, Jun 15, 2016
Gracias Dani. - jellonz, Jun 15, 2016
@Jubilado: That's the way his #1 is. --only reversed. - Daniela2041, Jun 15, 2016
Those choices make some sense to me. And Jubilado's above also seems okay to me by that same sense :) - bosquederoble, Jun 15, 2016
I think that should be fine Jubilado as it's just changing the order of 1 (although in saying that some adverb/adjective pairs sometimes have a preferred order in certain languages). - jellonz, Jun 15, 2016
Woops, sorry for the double tap - I see Dani already answered - I'm such a slow typer :( - jellonz, Jun 15, 2016
I could comment on why I like Daniela's choices vs. the the ones she doesn't like, but it would be only my opinion. :) - bosquederoble, Jun 15, 2016
Hi deputy Dan ,jellonz is a Sheila like you and is a " Kiwi " . Good work thanks F Y S . - ray76, Jun 15, 2016
Hey Ray- no mate, I'm a fella :) Kiwi yes, sheila no. - jellonz, Jun 15, 2016
Sorry mate ,I have been traveling for too long ,I must get home and get examined. - ray76, Jun 16, 2016
3
votes

Like Daniela I researched this question without joy, so in the absence of any rules the best we can do is go with what sounds right and try and understand why it does. Taking Daniela's input as a guide I'll attempt an answer to my own questions.

When two adverbs follow a verb, can they be of mixed type, and if so is it commonly done?

It seems with the -mente form of adverb and the adjectival form this would sound odd. When you think about it the same is true in English. Unfortunately we have relatively few non -ly adverbs for examples, but consider "He ran strongly and quickly" versus "He ran hard and fast." In English we would tend to stick with like forms of adverb where possible (although mixing them would not be incorrect).

However, it seems the -mente form of adverb, or the adjectival form, can be coupled naturally with the phrasal "con + noun" adverb form. Again, the same is true in English. "He ran strongly and with speed" or "He ran hard and with speed": Either is fine.

If the adverbs can be of mixed type, and the first is a -mente form, does it still lose that suffix?

Apparently no, and this would make sense if we consider that the only different form of adverb that sounds natural after a -mente adverb is the "con + noun" form. As this is a prepositional phrase being used as an adverb it seems logical that the preceding -mente adverb should retain its suffix as it is not part of a -mente string of adverbs, but instead one adverb followed by a prepositional phrase (which just happens to form another adverb).

If we apply this logic to the original examples it gives us the 1,2,3 and 7 forms that Daniela suggests are most natural.

updated Jun 16, 2016
edited by jellonz
posted by jellonz
I'll vote for that! - Daniela2041, Jun 15, 2016
Gracias Dani. - jellonz, Jun 15, 2016