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de todo hay vs hay de todo

de todo hay vs hay de todo

2
votes

Is there a difference between "de todo hay en la viña del Señor" and "hay de todo en la viña del Señor"?

1294 views
updated Apr 4, 2016
posted by cdunn3

3 Answers

5
votes

The two are the same, but the first is poetic / literature and requires a pause between todo and hay to sound right. The second is more common / contemporary construction.

updated Apr 4, 2016
posted by 005faa61
thanks julianchivi - cdunn3, Apr 3, 2016
2
votes

Plug the two into the translator and you get:

de todo hay en la viña del Señor > everything there is in the vineyard of the Lord

hay de todo en la viña del Señor > There is everything in the vineyard of the Lord

I am not a grammar expert by any means but I think that "de todo" is acting as an adjective that modifies "hay" and as such the placement does change the meaning. But I am almost certain I am wrong about the grammar but I feel certain that the meanings are different.

updated Apr 3, 2016
edited by gringojrf
posted by gringojrf
1
vote

Thanks for response gringojrf. Since there is so much more liberty in word order in Spanish than in English, I wish a native speaker would comment to confirm or expand. I actual have the same question with respect to: Solo hay cinco monedas vs Hay solo cinco monedas. Do these mean the same? I understand that oftentimes context determines the actual meaning of a sentence..

updated Apr 4, 2016
edited by cdunn3
posted by cdunn3
I would stick with using the second, it sounds more ' normal' to me. - annierats, Apr 3, 2016
With 'moedas' it makes no diffeence, although I have never, ever heard the word moneda in actual use. - annierats, Apr 3, 2016
thanks annierats - cdunn3, Apr 3, 2016
You had a native speaker comment on this, Julian Chivi. I am Spanish and I agree with him. The one is more elegant or poetic. - Daniela2041, Apr 4, 2016