haberse = haber ser?

Question

Hola a todos.

Would the phrase "se ha roto el coche" (The car has been broken) [using the passive se] be equivalent to "ha sido roto el coche" (The car has been broken) [using the past participle for ser] in Spanish? If not, what are the differences?

Gracias.

Somehow it seems that "el coche" should be first in both sentences, but they seem correct grammatically. You know both perfect tenses and the passive are avoided if possible. I will wait for a native speaker or more didactic answer. - Jubilado, Mar 7, 2016

The first one means that the car broke/stopped working whatever but jn the second one it means that a PERSON has broken the car. Anyway the second one sounds weird--native speaker - fernand2017, Mar 11, 2016

Answer 1

Well, the sentence se ha roto el coche is not the same that sido roto el coche.

First, the second sentence doesn't have any sense in Spanish (incorrect). Besides, in Spanish, the verb romper, when we talk about computers, machines, vehicules, etc... is almost always (if not always) reflexive and impersonal. Excepting when anybody breaks anything (not YOU), this is the more common use of the verb romper. Spanish people breaks nothing , things break themselves XD.

Common way: Se ha roto la lavadora

...and they never loss anything. Things get lost by themselves. - gringojrf, Mar 7, 2016

loss = lose - gringojrf, Mar 7, 2016